Genitourinary System Quizlet

Genitourinary System Quizlet Related

Review Genitourinary System Quizlet related questions and content

The patient has a thoracic spinal cord lesion and incontinence that occurs equally during the day and night. What type of incontinence is this patient experiencing?

  • A. Reflex incontinence
  • B. Overflow incontinence
  • C. Functional incontinence
  • D. Incontinence after trauma
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reflex incontinence. This type of incontinence occurs due to a lack of voluntary control over the bladder, usually resulting from a spinal cord lesion. In this case, the thoracic spinal cord lesion is causing the incontinence. The fact that incontinence occurs equally during the day and night suggests a lack of awareness or sensation of bladder fullness, characteristic of reflex incontinence.

Summary of other choices:
B: Overflow incontinence is due to bladder overdistension and is commonly associated with conditions like BPH or spinal cord injuries at the sacral level.
C: Functional incontinence is when a person is unable to reach the toilet in time due to physical or cognitive impairments.
D: Incontinence after trauma is a broad term and does not specifically address the pattern of incontinence described in the question.

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The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: *

  • A. Inhibition of viral protease enzyme
  • B. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesis
  • C. Interaction with the viral M2 protein
  • D. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interaction with the viral M2 protein. Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel of the influenza A virus, preventing the release of viral RNA into the host cell. This inhibits the viral replication process. Option A is incorrect as amantadine does not target viral protease enzymes. Option B is incorrect as amantadine does not inhibit viral RNA-mediated DNA synthesis, which is a process specific to retroviruses. Option D is incorrect as amantadine does not interact with virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral medications.

Branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys are called _________.

  • A. Renal capsules
  • B. Ureters
  • C. Renal arteries
  • D. Renal Columns
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal arteries. Renal arteries are branches of the abdominal aorta that supply blood to the kidneys. They play a crucial role in delivering oxygenated blood to the kidneys for filtration and waste removal. Choice A, Renal capsules, are fibrous tissue surrounding the kidney, not blood vessels. Choice B, Ureters, are tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder, not blood vessels. Choice D, Renal Columns, are extensions of the renal cortex in the kidney, not blood vessels. Hence, C is the correct choice as it directly relates to the blood supply of the kidneys.

A 28 year old male patient present with a painless sore in his penis and blood * test confirms Treponema pallidum. Which of the following agent is the treatment of choice that can be given as a single dose?

  • A. Benzathine penicillin
  • B. Ceftriaxone
  • C. Vancomycin
  • D. Aztreonam
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. The treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum is penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is preferred due to its long-acting nature, providing sustained therapeutic levels. It is given as a single dose for early-stage syphilis. Ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and aztreonam are not effective against Treponema pallidum and are not recommended for the treatment of syphilis. Benzathine penicillin remains the first-line treatment due to its efficacy and established effectiveness against syphilis.

Which is not a relatively common finding in ESRF patients?

  • A. Metastatic calcification.
  • B. Peripheral neuropathy
  • C. Hypophosphatemia
  • D. Hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypophosphatemia. In end-stage renal failure (ESRF) patients, hypophosphatemia is not a common finding due to impaired renal excretion of phosphate. Metastatic calcification (A) occurs due to high calcium-phosphate product, peripheral neuropathy (B) can result from uremic toxins, and hyperparathyroidism (D) is common in ESRF due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Therefore, hypophosphatemia is the least likely finding in ESRF patients.

The nurse is teaching a health class about UTIs to a appropriate response?

  • A. Document the presence of a healthy stom
  • C. Assess the patient for further signs and symptoms of
  • D. Men over age 65 are equally prone to UTIs as infection.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the patient for further signs and symptoms of UTI is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment. By evaluating additional symptoms such as frequency, urgency, dysuria, and hematuria, the nurse can confirm the presence of a UTI. This step is essential for appropriate management and preventing complications.

Choice A is incorrect because documenting a healthy stomach does not address the assessment and management of UTIs. Choice B is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information about UTIs. Choice D is incorrect as men over age 65 are actually less prone to UTIs compared to women.

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