Nokea
Branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys are called _________.
- A. Renal capsules
- B. Ureters
- C. Renal arteries
- D. Renal Columns
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal arteries. Renal arteries are branches of the abdominal aorta that supply blood to the kidneys. They play a crucial role in delivering oxygenated blood to the kidneys for filtration and waste removal. Choice A, Renal capsules, are fibrous tissue surrounding the kidney, not blood vessels. Choice B, Ureters, are tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder, not blood vessels. Choice D, Renal Columns, are extensions of the renal cortex in the kidney, not blood vessels. Hence, C is the correct choice as it directly relates to the blood supply of the kidneys.
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The kidney does all of the following when the pH of the extracellular fluid drops, EXCEPT:
- A. excrete more hydrogen ions.
- B. excrete fewer bicarbonate ions.
- C. secrete more hydrogen ions and more bicarbonate ions.
- D. secrete more hydrogen ions and fewer bicarbonate ions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because when the pH drops, the kidney aims to restore acid-base balance by excreting more hydrogen ions and reabsorbing more bicarbonate ions. Choice A is incorrect because the kidney excretes more hydrogen ions to help raise the pH. Choice B is incorrect because the kidney excretes more bicarbonate ions to help buffer the excess hydrogen ions. Choice D is incorrect because the kidney would not secrete fewer bicarbonate ions when trying to compensate for a drop in pH.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
- A. Alprostadil increases cAMP
- B. Alprostadil increases cGMP
- C. Alprostadil increases PDE-5
- D. Alprostadil blocks NO (nitric oxide)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.
The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: *
- A. Inhibition of viral protease enzyme
- B. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesis
- C. Interaction with the viral M2 protein
- D. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interaction with the viral M2 protein. Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel of the influenza A virus, preventing the release of viral RNA into the host cell. This inhibits the viral replication process. Option A is incorrect as amantadine does not target viral protease enzymes. Option B is incorrect as amantadine does not inhibit viral RNA-mediated DNA synthesis, which is a process specific to retroviruses. Option D is incorrect as amantadine does not interact with virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral medications.
A physician is caring for a patient with a urinary tract infection. The physician would expect the plan of care to include:
- A. Antibiotics and phenazopyridine.
- B. Erythropoietin and stent placement.
- C. Hormonal therapy and intravenous fluids.
- D. Hourly urine output measurements and antibiotics.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotics and phenazopyridine. Antibiotics are essential to treat the bacterial infection causing the UTI. Phenazopyridine can help relieve urinary discomfort. Erythropoietin and stent placement (B) are not indicated for UTI. Hormonal therapy and IV fluids (C) are not standard treatments for UTI. Hourly urine output measurements and antibiotics (D) are not typically necessary, as antibiotics alone are sufficient for treating UTIs.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The nurses most appropriate action or response is to:
- A. Ask the patient if he would like someone else to examine him.
- B. Continue with the examination as though nothing has happened
- C. reassure the patient that it is normal
- D. Stop the examination, leave the room while stating that the examination will resume at a later tim
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: reassure the patient that it is normal. An erection during a genital examination is a normal physiological response and not under the patient's control. By reassuring the patient, the nurse helps alleviate any potential embarrassment or anxiety. Asking for someone else (A) may further embarrass the patient. Continuing as if nothing happened (B) may ignore the patient's emotional well-being. Stopping the examination and leaving (D) without explanation can create confusion and discomfort.