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What causes the gastrointestinal (GI) manifestation of stomatitis in the patient with CKD?
- A. High serum sodium levels
- B. Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine
- C. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea
- D. Iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stomatitis in CKD patients is often caused by iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake. Iron salts and calcium binders can lead to mucosal irritation in the GI tract, exacerbating stomatitis. Limited fluid intake can cause dehydration, leading to oral mucosal dryness and vulnerability to stomatitis.
A: High serum sodium levels do not directly cause stomatitis in CKD patients.
B: Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine is not a common cause of stomatitis in CKD patients.
C: Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea is more related to hepatic encephalopathy rather than stomatitis in CKD patients.
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The microscopic functional unit of the kidney Urinary bladder Urethra Putting it all together 19 Explain, in your own words, whether the following substances would normally be expected to be present
- B. Protein
- C. Glucose
- D. Some people may need to undergo kidney dialysis. Explain, in your own words, how this intervention is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. In the urine, the presence of protein can indicate kidney damage or malfunction. Normally, the kidneys filter out waste products, toxins, and excess substances, but proteins are too large to pass through healthy kidney filters. If protein is found in the urine, it suggests a problem with the kidney's filtration system. This can be a sign of conditions like kidney disease or diabetes.
Rationale for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Urinary bladder and urethra are not typically associated with the presence of substances like protein in urine.
C: Glucose in the urine may indicate diabetes or other health issues, but it is not the most common substance to be tested for in routine urinalysis.
D: Kidney dialysis is a treatment for kidney failure, not a substance present in urine.
Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations?:
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Tetracycline
- C. Chloramphenicol
- D. Ampicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. At higher concentrations, it can disrupt bacterial cell membranes, making it bactericidal. Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis, Chloramphenicol blocks peptide bond formation, and Ampicillin disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis. Therefore, A is correct because of its dual mechanism of action.
A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _______ cancer.
- A. Uterine.
- B. Cervical.
- C. Ovarian.
- D. Endometrial.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cervical cancer. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of the virus can lead to changes in cervical cells that may progress to cancer. Regular examinations, such as Pap smears, can help detect any abnormalities early on and prevent the development of cervical cancer.
Choice A: Uterine cancer is not directly linked to HPV.
Choice C: Ovarian cancer is not commonly associated with HPV.
Choice D: Endometrial cancer is not directly caused by HPV.
Regular screenings for cervical cancer are crucial for women with HPV to monitor any changes and take necessary preventive measures.
Which of the following drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase * without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
- A. Nelnavir
- B. Nevirapine
- C. Stavudine
- D. Didanosine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nevirapine. Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation. It binds directly to the enzyme's active site, preventing the conversion of viral RNA to DNA.
Rationale:
1. Nelnavir (A) is a protease inhibitor that works by blocking the protease enzyme needed for viral replication, not reverse transcriptase inhibition.
2. Stavudine (C) and Didanosine (D) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that require intracellular phosphorylation to become active, unlike Nevirapine.
In summary, Nevirapine is the correct answer as it directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation, distinguishing it from the other choices which belong to different drug classes or require intracellular phosphorylation.
Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?:
- A. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus
- B. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus
- C. Varicella-zoster virus
- D. Epstein-Barr virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that specifically targets viruses that belong to the herpes virus family by inhibiting their replication. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it has a thymidine kinase enzyme that activates acyclovir into its active form, which then interferes with viral DNA synthesis. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus also has this enzyme, but it is not as effective against acyclovir compared to Type 1. Varicella-zoster virus and Epstein-Barr virus do not have the thymidine kinase enzyme necessary for acyclovir activation, making them less susceptible to the drug.