Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: *
- A. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
- B. It prevents renal excretion of amoxicillin
- C. It destroy bacteria that are not destroyed by amoxicillin
- D. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clavulanic acid acts as a beta-lactamase inhibitor, protecting amoxicillin from being destroyed by beta-lactamase enzymes produced by bacteria. This allows amoxicillin to effectively kill the bacteria. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clavulanic acid does not prevent renal excretion of amoxicillin, destroy bacteria directly, or counteract adverse effects of amoxicillin. The primary purpose of combining clavulanic acid with amoxicillin is to enhance amoxicillin's effectiveness by preventing its degradation by bacterial enzymes.
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An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the:
- A. Testis. NURSINGT
- B. COM
- C. Scrotum.
- D. Prostat
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prostate. The prostate is an accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs as it produces and secretes fluid that is a component of semen. The testis (A) is the primary male reproductive organ responsible for producing sperm. The scrotum (C) is the external sac that houses the testes. Choice B does not seem to be a valid option.
Which of the following diuretics than can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbances as adverse reactions?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Acetazolamide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist.
2. Aldosterone antagonism can lead to anti-androgenic effects, causing gynecomastia and hirsutism in males and menstrual disturbances in females.
3. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic known for electrolyte imbalances, not these specific side effects.
4. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic that primarily affects electrolytes, not causing hormonal side effects.
5. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, usually associated with metabolic acidosis, not hormonal disturbances.
Summary:
Spironolactone (D) is the correct answer due to its aldosterone antagonist properties causing hormonal side effects. The other choices do not have the same mechanism of action and are not associated with gynecomastia,
A nurse is caring for a patient with impaired renal which the nurse should monitor the patient?
- A. Accumulation of wastes
- B. The nurse should facilitate collection of what
- C. Retention of potassium
- D. Depletion of calcium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because impaired renal function can lead to the accumulation of wastes in the body, causing toxicity. Monitoring this is crucial for the patient's overall health. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the consequences of impaired renal function. Choice C, retention of potassium, is also incorrect as it is a specific outcome of impaired renal function and not the primary focus of monitoring. Choice D, depletion of calcium, is incorrect as impaired renal function is more likely to lead to hypercalcemia rather than hypocalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring the accumulation of wastes in a patient with impaired renal function.
A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with physiologic cryptorchidism. Considering this diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe:
- A. Testes that are hard and painful to palpation.
- B. Atrophic scrotum and a bilateral absence of the testis.
- C. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
- D. Testes that migrate into the abdomen when the child squats or sits cross-legge
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Physiologic cryptorchidism refers to a common condition in newborns where the testes have not descended into the scrotum but can be manually pushed down (milked) into the scrotum. This is a normal developmental process that usually resolves by the age of 3 months.
Rationale:
1. Absence of the testis in the scrotum: In physiologic cryptorchidism, the testes are not palpable in the scrotum due to incomplete descent.
2. Testis can be milked down: The testes can be gently pushed down into the scrotum, indicating that they are present and capable of descending on their own.
Summary of other choices:
A: Testes that are hard and painful to palpation is incorrect because physiologic cryptorchidism is not associated with inflammation or pain.
B: Atrophic scrotum and bilateral absence of the testis is incorrect as
What is the upper expanded region of the ureter called?
- A. Renal pelvis
- B. Renal papilla
- C. Renal pyramids
- D. Renal cortex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Renal pelvis. The upper expanded region of the ureter is called the renal pelvis, which is where the major calyces converge to collect urine before it travels down the ureter. The other choices are incorrect: B) Renal papilla is the tip of the renal pyramid where urine is collected before entering the minor calyx, C) Renal pyramids are the conical structures in the renal medulla that contain the nephrons, and D) Renal cortex is the outer region of the kidney where the nephrons are located.