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A pregnant woman comes to the labor and birth unit in labor. The woman tells the nurse, Yesterday, I had this burst of energy and cleaned everything in sight, but I don't know why. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. You had a burst of epinephrine, which is common before labor.
- B. You were trying to get everything ready for your baby.
- C. You felt your mind telling you that you were about to go into labor.
- D. You were looking forward to the birth of your baby.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a sudden increase in energy before labor is common due to an increase in epinephrine release. This burst of energy is unrelated to getting everything ready or looking forward to the birth of the baby. It is a physiological response that occurs before labor onset.
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A nurse is educating a male patient about improving sperm quality. What should the nurse suggest?
- A. Increase exposure to saunas and hot tubs for relaxation.
- B. Maintain a healthy lifestyle, including balanced nutrition and avoiding smoking.
- C. Consume high-fat diets to enhance testosterone levels.
- D. Avoid exercise as it reduces sperm motility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain a healthy lifestyle, including balanced nutrition and avoiding smoking. This is because a healthy lifestyle promotes overall well-being and can positively impact sperm quality. Balanced nutrition provides essential nutrients for sperm production while avoiding smoking reduces oxidative stress that can harm sperm.
Choice A is incorrect because increased exposure to saunas and hot tubs can actually raise scrotal temperature, potentially harming sperm quality. Choice C is incorrect as high-fat diets can lead to obesity and negatively impact sperm quality. Choice D is incorrect as exercise is beneficial for overall health, including sperm motility.
A 36-year-old female patient presents to the reproductive medicine clinic for a follow-up appointment. Initial laboratory results are available and indicate diminished ovarian reserve, and her partner's semen analysis is within normal parameters. Which infertility options may be appropriate for this client?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate
- C. Follitropin injections to stimulate ovarian follicles
- D. In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Donor oocytes
Rationale:
1. Diminished ovarian reserve suggests poor egg quality or quantity.
2. Using donor oocytes can bypass the issue of diminished ovarian reserve.
3. This option offers a better chance of successful conception compared to other methods due to healthier eggs from the donor.
Summary:
- B: Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate may not address the underlying issue of diminished ovarian reserve.
- C: Follitropin injections stimulate the patient's own follicles, which may not be optimal in cases of diminished ovarian reserve.
- D: In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer may not be successful if the patient's eggs are of poor quality or quantity.
What is the significance of timing in intrauterine insemination (IUI)?
- A. IUI is effective regardless of ovulation timing.
- B. IUI must be timed closely with ovulation for optimal success.
- C. IUI should only be done after the implantation window opens.
- D. Timing is irrelevant as long as sperm quality is high.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because timing is crucial in IUI to increase the chance of fertilization. Intrauterine insemination must be done close to ovulation to ensure that the sperm meets the egg for successful conception. Timing is essential to maximize the chances of successful fertilization.
Choice A is incorrect because timing is indeed important for the success of IUI. Choice C is incorrect because the implantation window is not related to the timing of IUI. Choice D is incorrect because high sperm quality alone is not sufficient for successful IUI; timing is a critical factor in achieving pregnancy through IUI.
A patient asks about the effects of smoking on male fertility. What should the nurse include in the response?
- A. Smoking increases testosterone levels, improving fertility.
- B. Smoking affects sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- C. Smoking has no significant impact on male reproductive health.
- D. Smoking only affects fertility when combined with alcohol use.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because smoking has been proven to negatively impact male fertility by reducing sperm count, motility, and morphology. Nicotine and other harmful chemicals in cigarettes can damage sperm DNA and affect reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect as smoking actually decreases testosterone levels. Choice C is incorrect as smoking does have a significant impact on male reproductive health. Choice D is incorrect because smoking alone can still affect male fertility without the need for alcohol use.
A woman is seeking genetic counseling during her pregnancy. She has a strong family history of diabetes mellitus. She wishes to have an amniocentesis to determine whether she is carrying a baby who will 'develop diabetes.' Which of the following replies would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
- A. Doctors don't do amniocenteses to detect diabetes.
- B. Diabetes cannot be diagnosed by looking at the genes.
- C. Although diabetes does have a genetic component
- D. diet and exercise also determine whether or not someone is diabetic.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diabetes involves genetic and environmental factors.