Nokea
A pregnant woman with acute pyelonephritis is advised on a high fluid intake so as to
- A. Promote enough rest
- B. Correct dehydration
- C. Relief irritability
- D. Increase urine output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Correct dehydration. Acute pyelonephritis can lead to dehydration due to fever, vomiting, and decreased fluid intake. High fluid intake helps correct dehydration by maintaining adequate fluid balance and preventing further complications. Increasing urine output (choice D) is a consequence of correcting dehydration. Promoting enough rest (choice A) is important but not the primary reason for advising high fluid intake. Relief of irritability (choice C) is not directly related to the management of acute pyelonephritis.
You may also like to solve these questions
The main feature of Hyperemesis gravidarum is
- A. Pallor or cyanosis of mucous membrane
- B. Inability to eat or retain food all through
- C. Weakness because of severe state of shock
- D. Smaller fundal height compared to dates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
Step 2: Inability to eat or retain food all through is a hallmark feature due to excessive vomiting.
Step 3: This leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss.
Step 4: Pallor, cyanosis, weakness, and smaller fundal height are not specific to hyperemesis gravidarum.
Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to the primary symptom of excessive vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum, while the other choices are not specific to this condition.
How can healthcare providers support women after stillbirth?
- A. Offer emotional counseling
- B. Explain causes clearly
- C. Support in planning future pregnancies
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: 1. Emotional counseling helps women cope with grief.
2. Explaining causes provides closure and understanding.
3. Supporting future pregnancies ensures better outcomes.
4. All options address different aspects of support needed after stillbirth.
5. Therefore, providing emotional counseling, explaining causes, and supporting future pregnancies collectively offer comprehensive care.
What are the benefits of ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth?
- A. Detects fetal anomalies
- B. Monitors placental health
- C. Assesses amniotic fluid levels
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth can detect fetal anomalies by visualizing the fetus in real-time. It can also monitor placental health by assessing blood flow and position. Additionally, ultrasound can assess amniotic fluid levels to ensure proper fetal development. Therefore, all the benefits mentioned in choices A, B, and C are valid reasons why ultrasound is essential in monitoring fetal growth.
What are the symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy?
- A. Painful urination
- B. Increased frequency of urination
- C. Lower abdominal pain
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because during pregnancy, UTI symptoms include painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and lower abdominal pain. Painful urination is a common symptom due to inflammation of the urinary tract. Increased frequency of urination is caused by the pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. Lower abdominal pain can also occur due to the infection. Therefore, all these symptoms are indicative of a UTI during pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass the comprehensive range of symptoms typically seen in a UTI during pregnancy.
Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
- A. No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative
- B. Quantiferon serum assay for exposure
- C. Consideration of prophylactic therapy
- D. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.