Nokea
The nurse is meeting with a client who was newly diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome. She knows that the client has the potential for which diagnoses? Select all that apply.
- A. Knowledge deficit
- B. Disturbed body image
- C. Risk for type 2 diabetes
- D. Impaired mobility
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired mobility. This is because polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) can lead to obesity and insulin resistance, which in turn can increase the risk of impaired mobility due to joint pain, reduced muscle strength, and overall decreased physical activity. The other choices are incorrect because A (Knowledge deficit) can be addressed through education, B (Disturbed body image) is more related to self-esteem and body perception issues, and C (Risk for type 2 diabetes) is a potential consequence of PCOS but not directly related to impaired mobility.
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The test used to screen for gestational diabetes is the:
- A. Glycosylated hemoglobin test.
- B. Glucose challenge test.
- C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
- D. Postprandial glucose test.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glucose challenge test. This test is used to screen for gestational diabetes as it involves drinking a glucose solution and measuring blood sugar levels afterward. This test is specifically designed to assess how well the body processes sugar during pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and is not specific for gestational diabetes.
C: Oral glucose tolerance test is used to diagnose gestational diabetes, not to screen for it.
D: Postprandial glucose test measures blood sugar levels after a meal and is not the recommended screening test for gestational diabetes.
A 17-year-old client presents to the clinic with concerns that she has not begun menstruating. She states that she is a gymnast and has been competing since she was 9 years old. Based on this history, what does the nurse know the client is most likely experiencing?
- A. Secondary amenorrhea
- B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
- C. Primary amenorrhea
- D. Dysmenorrhea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary amenorrhea. A 17-year-old who has not started menstruating is experiencing primary amenorrhea. This is likely due to her intense physical activity as a gymnast, which can delay the onset of menstruation. Secondary amenorrhea (A) occurs when menstruation stops after it has already begun. Polycystic ovary syndrome (B) is characterized by hormonal imbalances and ovarian cysts, not delayed onset of menstruation. Dysmenorrhea (D) refers to painful menstruation, which is not the issue in this case.
The nurse is providing a 20-year-old woman diagnosed with fibrocystic disease with education about her condition. Which information should be included? Select all that apply.
- A. Pain or tenderness is never present with fibrocystic disease.
- B. The cysts are thought to be hormone related.
- C. The cysts can be of any size, can feel like small lumps or grapes, and can be soft or firm.
- D. It is not a common finding in women between the ages of 30 and 50.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because pain or tenderness is not always present with fibrocystic disease. This information is important for the nurse to include when educating the patient. The other choices are incorrect because B is true - cysts are hormone-related, C describes the characteristics of fibrocystic disease, and D is false - fibrocystic disease is common in women between the ages of 30 and 50.
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
- A. MRI
- B. Mammogram
- C. Core needle biopsy
- D. Ductogram
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge.
B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system.
C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.
How does HPV manifest in HIV-positive clients?
- A. Cough
- B. Condylomata lata
- C. Condylomata
- D. Chancre
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Condylomata. HPV manifests in HIV-positive clients through the development of genital warts known as condylomata acuminata. This is a common manifestation due to the weakened immune system in HIV-positive individuals. Condylomata lata (choice B) is associated with syphilis, not HPV. Cough (choice A) is not a typical manifestation of HPV in HIV-positive clients. Chancre (choice D) is a primary lesion seen in syphilis, not HPV.