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A provider has ordered diagnostic procedures for a couple with suspected infertility. Which test is useful for determining if ovulation has occurred?
- A. FSH level
- B. Progesterone level
- C. Estrogen level
- D. Vaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Progesterone level. Progesterone is released after ovulation, indicating that ovulation has occurred. Monitoring progesterone levels can confirm ovulation timing. FSH (A) is more related to ovarian reserve. Estrogen (C) levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle. Vaginal ultrasound (D) can visualize ovarian follicles but does not confirm ovulation.
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The nurse in a genetic clinic interviews a couple and develops a pedigree chart. Which inheritance patterns does the pedigree chart portray?
- A. Autosomal recessive
- B. X-linked recessive
- C. Autosomal dominant
- D. X-linked dominant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Autosomal dominant. In an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, the trait is passed down from generation to generation, affecting both males and females equally. This is indicated by the presence of the trait in every generation of the pedigree chart. In contrast, autosomal recessive traits would skip generations and require both parents to be carriers. X-linked recessive traits mainly affect males and skip generations. X-linked dominant traits would be present in every generation but would affect more females than males.
During preconception counseling, a patient asks about the impact of caffeine on fertility. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe.
- B. Caffeine improves ovulation and increases conception chances.
- C. All caffeine should be eliminated to conceive successfully.
- D. Caffeine intake only affects male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe during preconception as excessive intake may affect fertility.
2. Studies show that moderate caffeine consumption doesn't significantly impact fertility.
3. Advising complete elimination may be overly restrictive and challenging for patients.
4. Caffeine can affect both male and female fertility, not just male fertility.
5. Emphasizing moderation allows for informed decision-making and realistic lifestyle changes.
Summary of other choices:
B: Incorrect - Caffeine does not improve ovulation or increase conception chances.
C: Incorrect - Complete elimination of caffeine is unnecessary for successful conception.
D: Incorrect - Caffeine intake can affect both male and female fertility, not limited to male fertility.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
During infertility counseling, the nurse explains the purpose of an HSG (hysterosalpingogram). What is the best explanation?
- A. It evaluates ovarian function and hormone levels.
- B. It assesses the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes.
- C. It determines the timing of ovulation for insemination.
- D. It monitors fetal development during early pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because an HSG is used to visualize the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes, helping to diagnose causes of infertility such as tubal blockages or abnormalities. A is incorrect because HSG does not assess ovarian function or hormone levels. C is incorrect as HSG does not determine ovulation timing but rather evaluates tubal patency. D is incorrect because HSG is not used to monitor fetal development.
Which instruction by the nurse should be included in the teaching plan for an infertile woman who has been shown to have a 28-day biphasic menstrual cycle?
- A. Douche with a cider vinegar solution immediately before having intercourse.
- B. Schedule intercourse every day from day 8 to day 14 of the menstrual cycle.
- C. Be placed on follicle-stimulating hormone therapy by the fertility specialist.
- D. Assess the basal body temperature pattern for at least 6 more months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intercourse during the fertile window (days 8–14 in a 28-day cycle) maximizes conception chances.