A pulsating mass may be an indication of...
- A. Strangulated hernia
- B. Incarcerated hernia
- C. AAA
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pulsating mass can indicate an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), which is a critical condition.
You may also like to solve these questions
When treating a patient with asthma who is experiencing acute wheezing, which medication should be given to relieve the symptom?
- A. Short acting bronchodilator
- B. Long acting bronchodilator
- C. Inhaled corticosteroid
- D. Combination of methylxanthine and long acting bronchodilator
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Short-acting bronchodilators like albuterol are used for acute asthma relief.
All of the statements about Medicaid are true except:
- A. Medicaid is jointly funded by federal and state governments.
- B. Medicaid provides coverage for low-income people of all ages.
- C. The coverage provided under Medicaid is the same in every state.
- D. Long-term care for elderly and disabled people accounts for the largest proportion of Medicaid spending.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Medicaid coverage varies by state and is not the same in every state.
A common pathological finding in a patient with asthma is:
- A. Necrosis of small airways
- B. Absence of goblet cells
- C. Absence of ciliary regeneration
- D. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Asthma is characterized by smooth muscle hypertrophy, airway remodeling, and inflammation.
A pregnant patient presents for a routine 16-week prenatal visit. Her BP has decreased from 119/78 mmHg at her 12-week visit to 110/69 mmHg. What hemodynamic factor accounts for the decrease in BP?
- A. Decrease preload
- B. Decrease in stroke volume
- C. Decrease cardiac output
- D. Decrease in systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnancy typically leads to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, which results in a lower blood pressure.
A 27-year-old male patient presents with a painless chancre on the shaft of his penis and regional lymphadenopathy. He is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The best initial treatment is:
- A. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
- B. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
- C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- D. Benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin L.A)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Benzathine penicillin G is the first-line treatment for primary syphilis.