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Recommended combination therapy for uncomplicated anorectal and pharyngeal gonorrhea is?
- A. Ceftriaxone and benzathine penicillin
- B. Benzathine penicillin and doxycycline
- C. Doxycycline and ciprofloxacin
- D. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The recommended treatment for gonorrhea is ceftriaxone and azithromycin for uncomplicated infections.
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A 27-year-old male patient presents with a painless chancre on the shaft of his penis and regional lymphadenopathy. He is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The best initial treatment is:
- A. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
- B. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
- C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- D. Benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin L.A)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Benzathine penicillin G is the first-line treatment for primary syphilis.
Headaches with symptoms of nausea and vomiting may be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
- A. Migraine headache
- B. Brain tumors
- C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- D. Tension headache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tension headaches typically do not present with nausea and vomiting.
The lymphatic ducts drain into the:
- A. Arterial system
- B. Venous system
- C. Vertebral bodies of the spine
- D. Shoulder
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The lymphatic ducts drain into the venous system, specifically at the junction of the subclavian and internal jugular veins.
Randall Johnson, an 80-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and hypothyroidism, presents with ongoing dizziness. What is the most likely cause of his dizziness?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo
- C. Overcontrol of thyroid
- D. Ménière disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is the most likely cause of dizziness in this patient with high blood pressure and hypothyroidism.
Why is it important to consider intracranial hemorrhage when a patient presents with epistaxis?
- A. It indicates a possible allergic reaction.
- B. It may suggest a more serious underlying condition.
- C. It is a common cause of nasal congestion.
- D. It usually resolves without treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epistaxis can be a symptom of intracranial hemorrhage, especially if the bleeding is sudden or severe.