Nokea
A study is designed to investigate the rates of central line–associated blood stream infections among pediatric hematology/oncology patients. Three common central line types (totally implanted catheter [port], peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC], and tunneled externalized catheter [TEC]) were included in the study. What data structure is central line type?
- A. Continuous
- B. Dichotomous
- C. Nominal
- D. Ordinal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nominal. The central line type is a categorical variable with no inherent order or ranking. Each type is distinct and cannot be quantitatively ordered or measured. It is not continuous (A), as it is not on a scale. It is not dichotomous (B) as there are more than two categories. It is not ordinal (D) because the types do not have a clear order or ranking. Therefore, central line type is best represented by a nominal data structure.
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Mr XY was found to be anemic. During history taking, he informed his doctor that he was a strict vegetarian who did not consume any meat, fish or milk products.
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- C. Defects in erythropoietin production
- D. Calcium-deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin B12 deficiency. As a strict vegetarian who does not consume any meat, fish, or milk products, Mr XY is at risk for Vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal products and is essential for red blood cell production. Anemia can result from Vitamin B12 deficiency, leading to symptoms such as fatigue and weakness. Iron deficiency (A) is also common in vegetarians, but in this case, the focus is on Vitamin B12 due to the exclusion of all animal products. Defects in erythropoietin production (C) are not related to Mr XY's dietary choices. Calcium-deficiency (D) is not directly related to anemia in this scenario.
You receive a phone call from a community pediatrician who is caring for a 2-year-old toddler with a cancer predisposition syndrome. The pediatrician describes a child at the 95th percentile for height and weight with a history of corrective oral surgery to reduce a large tongue and a history of an omphalocele in infancy. The pediatrician is currently performing ultrasound of the abdomen and laboratory evaluation for this patient every 3 months. Which tumor is this patient most at risk of developing?
- A. Pleuropulmonary blastoma
- B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- C. Cystic nephroma
- D. Nephroblastoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor). This patient likely has Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome given the features of overgrowth, macroglossia, and omphalocele. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is associated with an increased risk of Wilms tumor. Wilms tumor is the most common renal malignancy in childhood. Monitoring for Wilms tumor with ultrasound and laboratory evaluations is appropriate due to the increased risk in this patient population.
Choice A: Pleuropulmonary blastoma is a rare lung tumor more commonly seen in children under 2 years old. It is not typically associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Choice B: Hepatocellular carcinoma is a primary liver cancer more commonly seen in adults, not children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Choice C: Cystic nephroma is a benign kidney tumor typically seen in young children, but it is not associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome nor is it malignant
A 40 year old patient is presented with unilateral palpebral edema and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy. He later develops megaesophagus and megacolon as complications. Which of the following vector is responsible for this parasitic infection?
- A. Glossina morsitans
- B. Ixodes scapularis
- C. Rhodnius prolixus
- D. Simulium damnosum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhodnius prolixus. This parasite is responsible for causing Chagas disease. The initial symptoms of unilateral palpebral edema and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy are characteristic of the acute phase of Chagas disease. The development of megaesophagus and megacolon are complications seen in the chronic phase. Rhodnius prolixus is a vector for Trypanosoma cruzi, the parasite that causes Chagas disease. Glossina morsitans is the vector for African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), Ixodes scapularis is the vector for Lyme disease, and Simulium damnosum is the vector for onchocerciasis (river blindness), making them incorrect choices for this particular parasitic infection.
The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
- A. Do you take salicylates?
- B. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
- C. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
- D. How long have you taken antihypertensive drugs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Do you take salicylates? Petechiae can be a sign of salicylate use, which can cause bleeding disorders. By asking about salicylates, the nurse can determine if the petechiae are related to medication. Choice B is not directly related to petechiae. Choice C is more specific to antiseizure drugs and not commonly associated with petechiae. Choice D is unrelated to petechiae and focuses on hypertension management. Asking about salicylates is the most appropriate to assess potential medication-induced petechiae.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae in her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, the nurse should perform what action?
- A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
- B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
- C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
- D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer B is correct:
1. Petechiae and ecchymoses indicate potential thrombocytopenia in a leukemia patient.
2. Checking the patient's platelet level will confirm thrombocytopenia and guide treatment.
3. Low platelet levels can lead to bleeding complications, hence the importance of monitoring.
4. Prompt intervention based on platelet level results can prevent worsening complications.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Initiating measures to prevent VTE is not directly related to the patient's current presentation of ecchymoses and petechiae.
C: Placing the patient on protective isolation is not indicated for thrombocytopenia.
D: Ambulating the patient may be beneficial for circulation but does not address the underlying issue of potential thrombocytopenia.