Nokea
Acetazolamide is not frequently used as diuretic but the current indication is in the treatment of:
- A. Liver cirrhosis
- B. CHF
- C. Glaucoma
- D. Kidney failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous humor production, making it effective in treating glaucoma. It is not commonly used as a diuretic due to its short duration of action and side effects. Therefore, choice C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as acetazolamide is not indicated for liver cirrhosis, CHF, or kidney failure. Liver cirrhosis typically requires diuretics to manage ascites, CHF is managed with loop diuretics, and kidney failure may require different types of diuretics based on the underlying cause.
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Which of the following drug adverse reactions precludes a patient from being * given the same drug in the future?
- A. GI upset from Clarithromycin
- B. Skin Rash from Ampicillin
- C. Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimetoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
- D. Clostridium decile superinfection from Ooxacin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction characterized by rash, blistering, and mucosal involvement. Once a patient experiences Steven-Johnson syndrome from a specific drug like Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, they should never be given that drug again due to the high risk of recurrence and the severity of the reaction. This is known as a contraindication, making it unsafe to administer the drug in the future.
A, B, and D are incorrect because GI upset from Clarithromycin, skin rash from Ampicillin, and Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ciprofloxacin, while unpleasant, are not typically considered contraindications for future use of the same drug. These adverse reactions can often be managed with dose adjustments, alternative medications, or supportive care without ruling out the drug entirely
The clinic nurse is preparing a plan of care for a
- A. What role The clinic nurse should recognize what type of will the nurse have in implementing a behavioral therapy incontinence? approach?
- B. Stress incontinence
- C. Provide medication teaching related to
- D. Reflex incontinence pseudoephedrine sulfat
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the clinic nurse needs to recognize the role they will have in implementing a behavioral therapy approach for incontinence. This involves assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating the behavioral interventions to help manage the condition effectively. Choice B is incorrect as it only identifies a type of incontinence without addressing the nurse's role in care. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on medication teaching, which is not related to behavioral therapy. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions a medication, pseudoephedrine sulfate, which is not relevant to implementing a behavioral therapy approach.
The nurse is preparing to collect an ordered urine sample for urinalysis. The nurse should be aware that this test will include what assessment parameters? Select all that apply.
- A. Specific gravity of the patients urine
- B. Testing for the presence of glucose in the patients urine
- C. Microscopic examination of urine sediment for RBCs
- D. Microscopic examination of urine sediment for casts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Specific gravity of the patient's urine. Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in urine, indicating the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine.
B: Testing for the presence of glucose is typically done to assess for diabetes, not a routine urinalysis.
C: Microscopic examination for RBCs is mainly done to detect presence of blood in urine, not a routine parameter.
D: Microscopic examination for casts is done to assess for kidney disease, not part of a routine urinalysis.
Therefore, specific gravity is the key parameter for urine concentration and kidney function, making it the correct choice.
Patients with bladder cancer typically exhibit symptoms of:
- A. Weight loss and low back pain.
- B. Fatigue and anemia.
- C. Hematuria and change in urinary pattern.
- D. Difficulty initiating urinary stream and nocturia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because hematuria (blood in urine) and change in urinary pattern are classic symptoms of bladder cancer. Hematuria is the most common presenting symptom. Weight loss and low back pain (choice A) are more indicative of advanced stages of cancer. Fatigue and anemia (choice B) are nonspecific symptoms. Difficulty initiating urinary stream and nocturia (choice D) may be seen in other conditions but are not specific to bladder cancer.
Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: *
- A. Na +K + ATPase
- B. Na +/Cl - transporter
- C. Na +K +/ 2Cl - transporter
- D. Na +H + antiporter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide inhibits the Na+K+/2Cl- transporter in the renal tubular cell. This transporter is responsible for reabsorbing sodium, potassium, and chloride ions from the urine back into the bloodstream. By inhibiting this transporter, furosemide prevents the reabsorption of these ions, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes, thereby promoting diuresis. Na+K+ ATPase (A) is not the target of furosemide. Na+/Cl- transporter (B) is not the primary mechanism of action for furosemide. Na+H+ antiporter (D) is not the target of furosemide in the renal tubular cell.