Nokea
Which of the following drug is a radical curative in plasmodium vivax malaria * and is used as prophylaxis for malaria at Chloroquine sensitive regions
- A. Quinine
- B. Primaquine
- C. Meoquine
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primaquine. Primaquine is a radical curative drug for Plasmodium vivax malaria, as it targets the hypnozoite stage in the liver, preventing relapses. It is also used as prophylaxis in Chloroquine-sensitive regions due to its efficacy against P. vivax and P. ovale.
Rationale:
1. Quinine (A) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria. It is mainly used for treatment of acute malaria.
2. Meoquine (C) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is used more for prophylaxis in certain regions.
3. Chloroquine (D) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is primarily used for treatment and prevention of malaria caused by susceptible strains of Plasmodium species.
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A female patient with a UTI has a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to lack of knowledge regarding prevention of recurrence. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan instructions for this patient?
- A. Empty the bladder at least 4 times a day.
- B. Drink at least 2 quarts of water every day.
- C. Wait to urinate until the urge is very intense.
- D. Clean the urinary meatus with an antiinfective agent after voiding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drink at least 2 quarts of water every day. This answer is correct because adequate hydration helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTI recurrence. Drinking plenty of water promotes frequent urination, which helps to prevent bacteria from multiplying in the bladder.
Choice A is incorrect because the frequency of emptying the bladder does not directly impact the prevention of UTI recurrence. Choice C is incorrect as delaying urination can lead to the retention of urine, which may increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the urinary meatus with an antiinfective agent after voiding is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural flora and irritate the area, potentially leading to more infections.
In summary, maintaining adequate hydration by drinking at least 2 quarts of water daily is the most effective method to prevent UTI recurrence, while the other choices are less relevant or potentially harmful.
A-50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a thiazide diuretic that reduces calcium excretion, preventing stone formation. Furosemide (A) and spironolactone (B) do not target calcium excretion specifically. Acetazolamide (D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and not commonly used for calcium stones.
The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:
- A. Benzathine penicillin
- B. Sodium penicillin
- C. Potassium penicillin
- D. Procaine penicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations.
Summary:
- Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body.
- Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation.
- Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.
In planning care for Mrs. T., the nurse must recognize that slowed metabolism will also result in
- A. nausea
- B. oily hair
- C. tachycardia
- D. constipation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: constipation. Slowed metabolism can lead to decreased gastrointestinal motility, resulting in constipation. This occurs because the digestive system processes food more slowly, leading to less frequent bowel movements. Nausea (choice A) is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues or medication side effects. Oily hair (choice B) is typically related to hormonal imbalances or poor hygiene. Tachycardia (choice C) is an increased heart rate that is not directly linked to slowed metabolism.
Which of the following cephalosporins has activity against gram negative anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis, and the only cephalosporins that cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Cefoxitin
- C. Cephalexin
- D. Cefixime
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin known for broad-spectrum coverage.
2. It has excellent activity against gram-negative anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis.
3. It is also one of the cephalosporins that can penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
4. The other choices do not have the same anaerobic coverage or BBB penetration.
Summary:
- B: Cefoxitin is a second-generation cephalosporin with anaerobic coverage but does not cross the BBB.
- C: Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin with limited anaerobic activity and no BBB penetration.
- D: Cefixime is a third-generation cephalosporin with no anaerobic activity or BBB penetration.