Nokea
Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Indinavir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Foscarnet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ganciclovir is the preferred antiviral for CMV infections due to its effectiveness against CMV.
2. It works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, stopping viral replication.
3. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used for HIV, not CMV.
4. Amantadine is used for influenza A virus, not CMV.
5. Foscarnet is an alternative for CMV if ganciclovir is not tolerated.
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Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men. The symptoms that may indicate this problem are:
- A. Polyuria and urgency
- B. Dysuria and oliguria
- C. Straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
- D. Foul-smelling urine and dysuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Prostatic hypertrophy causes an enlarged prostate gland.
2. Enlarged prostate can lead to symptoms like straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
3. These symptoms are due to obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
4. Polyuria, urgency, dysuria, oliguria, and foul-smelling urine are not typical symptoms of prostatic hypertrophy.
Summary:
Choice C is correct because it directly relates to the obstructive symptoms caused by prostatic hypertrophy. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical symptoms of this condition and are therefore incorrect.
Which of the following drug/(s) that is /are used to treat chronic hepatitis B? *
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Human interferon α
- C. Amantadine
- D. (
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A (Lamivudine) is correct:
1. Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat chronic hepatitis B.
2. It inhibits the replication of the hepatitis B virus, reducing viral load and liver damage.
3. Clinical studies have shown its efficacy in improving liver function and reducing the risk of cirrhosis.
4. Lamivudine is recommended as a first-line treatment option by major medical guidelines.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B. Human interferon α: While interferon therapy was previously used, it is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment due to its side effects and lower efficacy compared to newer drugs.
C. Amantadine: Amantadine is not recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B as it is not effective against the hepatitis B virus.
D. (: This is not a valid drug option for treating chronic hepatitis B.
During a genital examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has clusters of small vesicles on the glans, surrounded by erythema. The nurse recognizes that these lesions are:
- A. Peyronie disease.
- B. Genital warts.
- C. Genital herpes.
- D. Syphilitic cancer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Genital herpes. Genital herpes presents as clusters of small vesicles on the glans surrounded by erythema. This is a classic presentation of genital herpes infection caused by herpes simplex virus. Peyronie disease (A) is characterized by penile curvature. Genital warts (B) are caused by human papillomavirus and appear as flesh-colored growths. Syphilitic chancre (D) is a painless ulcer seen in primary syphilis, not vesicles. In this case, the presence of vesicles and erythema points towards genital herpes as the most likely diagnosis.
Which of these statements is most appropriate when the nurse is obtaining a genitourinary history from an older man?
- A. Do you need to get up at night to urinate?
- B. Do you experience nocturnal emissions, or wet dreams?
- C. Do you know how to perform a testicular self-examination?
- D. Has anyone ever touched your genitals when you did not want them to?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it pertains to a common genitourinary issue in older men, nocturia. Nocturnal emissions (choice B) are not typically relevant in this context. Testicular self-examination (choice C) is more appropriate for younger men, and asking about unwanted touching (choice D) is not relevant to obtaining a genitourinary history. Asking about nocturia can provide valuable information about potential prostate issues, urinary tract infections, or other conditions commonly affecting older men.
Which of the following semisynthetic penicillins which has an extended * spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant?:
- A. Cloxacillin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Piperacillin is a semisynthetic penicillin with extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli.
Step 2: It is acid-resistant, meaning it can withstand acidic environments in the stomach.
Step 3: However, it is not penicillinase-resistant, making it susceptible to penicillinase enzymes.
Step 4: Cloxacillin (A) and Amoxicillin (B) are penicillinase-resistant but do not have extended gram-negative activity.
Step 5: Phenoxymethyl penicillin (C) is neither acid-resistant nor penicillinase-resistant.
In summary, Piperacillin is the correct choice due to its extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli and acid resistance, despite not being penicillinase-resistant.