Nokea
The external male genital structures include the:
- A. Testis.
- B. Scrotum.
- C. Epididymis.
- D. Vas deferens.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scrotum. The scrotum is a pouch of skin and muscle that houses and protects the testes, which are the actual male reproductive glands responsible for producing sperm. The scrotum also helps regulate the temperature of the testes to ensure optimal sperm production.
A: Testis - While the testis is an external male genital structure, it is not the correct answer in this context as the question specifically asks for external structures.
C: Epididymis - The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle where sperm mature and are stored. It is an internal structure and not considered part of the external genital structures.
D: Vas deferens - The vas deferens is a tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation. It is also an internal structure and not part of the external genital structures.
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The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:
- A. Benzathine penicillin
- B. Sodium penicillin
- C. Potassium penicillin
- D. Procaine penicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations.
Summary:
- Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body.
- Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation.
- Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.
Which of the following diuretics needs close monitoring with use of * potassium sparing diuretics such as spironolactone?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Captopril
- C. Verapamil
- D. Hydrochlorothiazid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, which can be exacerbated when used with potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. This combination can lead to hyperkalemia, necessitating close monitoring of potassium levels.
B: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, not a diuretic.
C: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, not a diuretic.
D: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can also cause potassium depletion, but it does not specifically need close monitoring when used with potassium-sparing diuretics.
A patient with renal failure secondary to diabetic
- A. In the urethra nephropathy has been admitted to the medical unit.
- B. threatening effect of renal failure for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it correctly identifies the patient's condition as "uremic nephropathy," a common complication of renal failure in diabetic patients. Uremic nephropathy refers to the damage to the kidneys caused by the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to renal failure. This choice accurately describes the patient's primary diagnosis and the reason for admission.
Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific diagnosis or reason for the patient's admission, only mentioning the threatening effect of renal failure without specifying the underlying cause.
Choice C and D are incomplete and do not provide any information related to the patient's condition, making them incorrect.
A patient with HIV-AIDS being treated with combined antiviral drugs and * immunosuppressive agents, develops an opportunistic infection caused by Pneumocystis caranii. Which of the following drugs most likely be used in the treatment of pulmonary infection caused by P, caranii?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Carbenicillin
- C. Trimthoprim /Sulfametoxazole
- D. Penicillin G
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. This combination is the first-line treatment for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in patients with HIV-AIDS due to its efficacy against the organism. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis, while sulfamethoxazole inhibits bacterial dihydrofolic acid formation. These drugs work synergistically to target different steps in the folic acid synthesis pathway of Pneumocystis carinii, leading to its effective eradication. Metronidazole (A) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections, Carbenicillin (B) is a penicillin derivative mainly used for Gram-negative bacteria, and Penicillin G (D) is not effective against Pneumocystis carinii.
Which of the following drug is a radical curative in plasmodium vivax malaria * and is used as prophylaxis for malaria at Chloroquine sensitive regions
- A. Quinine
- B. Primaquine
- C. Meoquine
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primaquine. Primaquine is a radical curative drug for Plasmodium vivax malaria, as it targets the hypnozoite stage in the liver, preventing relapses. It is also used as prophylaxis in Chloroquine-sensitive regions due to its efficacy against P. vivax and P. ovale.
Rationale:
1. Quinine (A) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria. It is mainly used for treatment of acute malaria.
2. Meoquine (C) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is used more for prophylaxis in certain regions.
3. Chloroquine (D) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is primarily used for treatment and prevention of malaria caused by susceptible strains of Plasmodium species.