Nokea
Clients who have had a ureterolithotomy should be taught to expect
- A. a great deal of postoperative pain
- B. postoperative depression
- C. enforced bed rest for a week postoperatively
- D. large amounts of drainage from the tissue drain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because after a ureterolithotomy, there may be drainage from the tissue drain, which is a normal occurrence. This drainage helps to prevent complications such as infection and promotes healing. The drainage should decrease over time as the body heals. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the typical expectations following a ureterolithotomy procedure. Postoperative pain should be managed with medication, postoperative depression may occur but is not a universal expectation, and enforced bed rest for a week is not typically necessary.
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Which of the following anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for * advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures?:
- A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI)
- B. Three NRTIs
- C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI
- D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI). This regimen is typically reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or repeated treatment failures due to its potent antiviral effects. NRTIs inhibit viral replication by interfering with the HIV enzyme reverse transcriptase, while PIs inhibit the enzyme protease, essential for viral maturation. Combining these two classes of drugs provides a strong barrier against HIV resistance. Other choices (B, C, D) are less effective in advanced cases as they do not provide the same level of dual inhibition necessary to combat resistant strains and advanced disease progression.
Which of the following drug is a radical curative in plasmodium vivax malaria * and is used as prophylaxis for malaria at Chloroquine sensitive regions
- A. Quinine
- B. Primaquine
- C. Meoquine
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primaquine. Primaquine is a radical curative drug for Plasmodium vivax malaria, as it targets the hypnozoite stage in the liver, preventing relapses. It is also used as prophylaxis in Chloroquine-sensitive regions due to its efficacy against P. vivax and P. ovale.
Rationale:
1. Quinine (A) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria. It is mainly used for treatment of acute malaria.
2. Meoquine (C) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is used more for prophylaxis in certain regions.
3. Chloroquine (D) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is primarily used for treatment and prevention of malaria caused by susceptible strains of Plasmodium species.
During a pelvic examination, the nurse notes that the patient's cervix is irregular and hard to the touch. The nurse's next best action would be to:
- A. Perform a Pap smear test to confirm the diagnosis.
- B. Referral to a gynecologist for further examination.
- C. Complete a cervical cancer screening.
- D. Complete an endometrial biopsy to assess for malignancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Referral to a gynecologist for further examination. This is the best course of action because an irregular and hard cervix can indicate various underlying issues such as cervical dysplasia, fibroids, or cervical stenosis. A gynecologist can conduct a more thorough evaluation including additional tests like colposcopy or ultrasound to determine the cause and appropriate treatment.
A: Performing a Pap smear test may not provide sufficient information about the specific condition causing the irregularity.
C: Completing a cervical cancer screening may not address the immediate concern of the irregular and hard cervix.
D: Completing an endometrial biopsy is not indicated for assessing cervical abnormalities, as it focuses on the endometrium rather than the cervix.
Which of these statements is most appropriate when the nurse is obtaining a genitourinary history from an older man?
- A. Do you need to get up at night to urinate?
- B. Do you experience nocturnal emissions, or wet dreams?
- C. Do you know how to perform a testicular self-examination?
- D. Has anyone ever touched your genitals when you did not want them to?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it pertains to a common genitourinary issue in older men, nocturia. Nocturnal emissions (choice B) are not typically relevant in this context. Testicular self-examination (choice C) is more appropriate for younger men, and asking about unwanted touching (choice D) is not relevant to obtaining a genitourinary history. Asking about nocturia can provide valuable information about potential prostate issues, urinary tract infections, or other conditions commonly affecting older men.
A 55 year old man with kidney stones has been placed on a diuretic to decrease calcium excretion. However after a few weeks, he develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic is he taking?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Triamterene
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that works by reducing calcium excretion and increasing uric acid levels, which can lead to gout attacks in susceptible individuals. Furosemide (choice A) is a loop diuretic that does not increase uric acid levels. Spironolactone (choice B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not affect calcium or uric acid levels significantly. Triamterene (choice D) is also a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not impact calcium or uric acid levels in the same way as hydrochlorothiazide.