Nokea
What manifestation in the patient will indicate the need for restriction of dietary protein in management of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN)?
- A. Hematuria
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Hypertension
- D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. In APSGN, glomerular inflammation leads to impaired filtration, causing loss of protein in urine. Restricting dietary protein helps reduce proteinuria and slows kidney damage. Hematuria (A) is common but not a direct indication for dietary protein restriction. Hypertension (C) may require dietary sodium restriction. Elevated BUN (D) indicates impaired kidney function, but not a direct indication for protein restriction. In summary, in APSGN, proteinuria is the key manifestation necessitating dietary protein restriction to manage kidney damage.
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Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s) * a Staphylococci
- A. Streptococci
- B. Gonococci
- C. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci.
2. Streptococci are not within the spectrum of activity for Cloxacillin.
3. Gonococci are also not susceptible to Cloxacillin.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is A (Streptococci), as Cloxacillin is indicated only for Staphylococcal infections.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because Cloxacillin is effective against Staphylococci. Choices B and C are incorrect because Cloxacillin is not indicated for Gonococci or all of the organisms mentioned.
During a pelvic examination, the nurse notes that the patient's cervix is irregular and hard to the touch. The nurse's next best action would be to:
- A. Perform a Pap smear test to confirm the diagnosis.
- B. Referral to a gynecologist for further examination.
- C. Complete a cervical cancer screening.
- D. Complete an endometrial biopsy to assess for malignancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Referral to a gynecologist for further examination. This is the best course of action because an irregular and hard cervix can indicate various underlying issues such as cervical dysplasia, fibroids, or cervical stenosis. A gynecologist can conduct a more thorough evaluation including additional tests like colposcopy or ultrasound to determine the cause and appropriate treatment.
A: Performing a Pap smear test may not provide sufficient information about the specific condition causing the irregularity.
C: Completing a cervical cancer screening may not address the immediate concern of the irregular and hard cervix.
D: Completing an endometrial biopsy is not indicated for assessing cervical abnormalities, as it focuses on the endometrium rather than the cervix.
Patients with bladder cancer typically exhibit symptoms of:
- A. Weight loss and low back pain.
- B. Fatigue and anemia.
- C. Hematuria and change in urinary pattern.
- D. Difficulty initiating urinary stream and nocturia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because hematuria (blood in urine) and change in urinary pattern are classic symptoms of bladder cancer. Hematuria is the most common presenting symptom. Weight loss and low back pain (choice A) are more indicative of advanced stages of cancer. Fatigue and anemia (choice B) are nonspecific symptoms. Difficulty initiating urinary stream and nocturia (choice D) may be seen in other conditions but are not specific to bladder cancer.
What would be the best nursing action for the female client admitted following a nephrolithotomy with a urinary tract infection?
- A. Administer IV fluids and blood transfusions.
- B. Administer narcotic analgesics as prescribed.
- C. Encourage fluid intake of 3000 mL/day.
- D. Suggest taking herbs or spices to increase food palatability.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Encourage fluid intake of 3000 mL/day. This is important post-nephrolithotomy to prevent urinary stasis and aid in flushing out potential stone fragments. Adequate hydration also helps in preventing urinary tract infections. Administering IV fluids and blood transfusions (A) may be necessary in certain cases, but not specifically indicated for this scenario. Administering narcotic analgesics (B) may be required for pain management, but it does not address the underlying issue of preventing complications. Suggesting herbs or spices (D) is unrelated and may not be recommended due to potential interactions with medications.
A patient with renal failure secondary to diabetic
- A. In the urethra nephropathy has been admitted to the medical unit.
- B. threatening effect of renal failure for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it correctly identifies the patient's condition as "uremic nephropathy," a common complication of renal failure in diabetic patients. Uremic nephropathy refers to the damage to the kidneys caused by the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to renal failure. This choice accurately describes the patient's primary diagnosis and the reason for admission.
Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific diagnosis or reason for the patient's admission, only mentioning the threatening effect of renal failure without specifying the underlying cause.
Choice C and D are incomplete and do not provide any information related to the patient's condition, making them incorrect.