Nokea
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase?
- A. A return to normal weight
- B. A urine output of 3700 mL/day
- C. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels
- D. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. A urine output of 3700 mL/day indicates improved kidney function.
2. Increased urine output signifies the kidneys are able to filter and excrete waste.
3. High urine output is a positive sign of recovery in AKI patients.
4. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing kidney function.
5. Return to normal weight (choice A) may not directly indicate kidney recovery.
6. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels (choice C) can be due to other factors.
7. Decreasing BUN and creatinine levels (choice D) are important but do not directly indicate the recovery phase in AKI patients.
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Which of the following organism is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly?:
- A. Streptococcus pyogenes
- B. Meningococcus
- C. Treponema pallidum
- D. Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. E. coli is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly due to its ability to acquire resistance genes through plasmid exchange and mutation. This bacterium is commonly found in the gut of humans and animals, leading to frequent exposure to antibiotics. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C are less likely to develop resistance as rapidly as E. coli due to their lower frequency of exposure to antibiotics and differences in genetic makeup. Streptococcus pyogenes is susceptible to penicillin, Meningococcus has shown susceptibility to several antibiotics, and Treponema pallidum has limited exposure to antibiotics due to its unique nature as the causative agent of syphilis.
One of the primary functions of the kidney is to filter blood in order to remove substances that have no useful function in the body. Which of the following is the correct path of blood from the abdominal aorta to the inferior vena cava (IVC)?
- A. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – efferent arteries – glomerulus – afferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
- B. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – interlobar arteries – segmental arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
- C. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – segmental arteries – interlobar arteries – arcuate arteries – interlobular arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
- D. abdominal aorta – renal arteries – interlobar arteries – interlobular arteries – segmental arteries – arcuate arteries – afferent arteries – glomerulus – efferent arteries – peritubular capillaries – interlobular veins – arcuate veins – interlobar veins – renal veins – inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct path of blood flow in the kidney is from the abdominal aorta to the renal arteries, then to the segmental arteries, followed by interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arteries, glomerulus, efferent arteries, peritubular capillaries, interlobular veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal veins, and finally to the inferior vena cava. Choice C accurately follows this sequential flow of blood, making it the correct answer.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice A has the incorrect sequence of interlobar and interlobular arteries, which disrupts the correct flow.
- Choice B also has an incorrect sequence of interlobar and interlobular arteries, leading to an inaccurate path.
- Choice D has the interlobar and interlobular arteries in the wrong order, deviating from the correct blood flow pathway.
Which of the following drug is a radical curative in plasmodium vivax malaria * and is used as prophylaxis for malaria at Chloroquine sensitive regions
- A. Quinine
- B. Primaquine
- C. Meoquine
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primaquine. Primaquine is a radical curative drug for Plasmodium vivax malaria, as it targets the hypnozoite stage in the liver, preventing relapses. It is also used as prophylaxis in Chloroquine-sensitive regions due to its efficacy against P. vivax and P. ovale.
Rationale:
1. Quinine (A) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria. It is mainly used for treatment of acute malaria.
2. Meoquine (C) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is used more for prophylaxis in certain regions.
3. Chloroquine (D) is not a radical curative drug for P. vivax malaria and is primarily used for treatment and prevention of malaria caused by susceptible strains of Plasmodium species.
The nurse is preparing to collect an ordered urine sample for urinalysis. The nurse should be aware that this test will include what assessment parameters? Select all that apply.
- A. Specific gravity of the patients urine
- B. Testing for the presence of glucose in the patients urine
- C. Microscopic examination of urine sediment for RBCs
- D. Microscopic examination of urine sediment for casts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Specific gravity of the patient's urine. Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in urine, indicating the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine.
B: Testing for the presence of glucose is typically done to assess for diabetes, not a routine urinalysis.
C: Microscopic examination for RBCs is mainly done to detect presence of blood in urine, not a routine parameter.
D: Microscopic examination for casts is done to assess for kidney disease, not part of a routine urinalysis.
Therefore, specific gravity is the key parameter for urine concentration and kidney function, making it the correct choice.
Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH, non – peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH’s water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?
- A. Mannitol
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Conivaptan
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, indicated for managing SIADH by blocking ADH's water-sparing effects in the collecting ducts. Mannitol (A) is an osmotic diuretic used for reducing intracranial pressure, not specifically for SIADH. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema. Spironolactone (C) is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, not specifically for SIADH.