Nokea
Which is the most common from of acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Post streptococcal.
- B. IgA nephropathy
- C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
- D. Goodpasture's syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. It is the most common form of acute glomerulonephritis caused by a previous streptococcal infection. This type of glomerulonephritis typically occurs in children and young adults. The immune response to the streptococcal infection leads to the deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli, causing inflammation and kidney damage.
Choice B (IgA nephropathy) is a chronic form of glomerulonephritis characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the glomeruli. Choice C (Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis) is a severe form of glomerulonephritis characterized by rapid loss of kidney function. Choice D (Goodpasture's syndrome) is a rare autoimmune disease affecting the lungs and kidneys, characterized by the production of antibodies against the basement membrane of the glomeruli.
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The external male genital structures include the:
- A. Testis.
- B. Scrotum.
- C. Epididymis.
- D. Vas deferens.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scrotum. The scrotum is a pouch of skin and muscle that houses and protects the testes, which are the actual male reproductive glands responsible for producing sperm. The scrotum also helps regulate the temperature of the testes to ensure optimal sperm production.
A: Testis - While the testis is an external male genital structure, it is not the correct answer in this context as the question specifically asks for external structures.
C: Epididymis - The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle where sperm mature and are stored. It is an internal structure and not considered part of the external genital structures.
D: Vas deferens - The vas deferens is a tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation. It is also an internal structure and not part of the external genital structures.
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the:
- A. Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
- B. Vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
- C. Urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
- D. Paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. The vestibule is the area between the labia minora where the urethral meatus and vaginal orifice are located. This is important for the nurse to observe during an examination to assess the patient's genital health.
Choice B is incorrect because the vestibular (Bartholin) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule during an examination. Choice C is incorrect because the paraurethral (Skene) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule either. Choice D is incorrect because it combines the paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands, which are not typically visible in the vestibule during examination.
A female patient with a UTI has a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to lack of knowledge regarding prevention of recurrence. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan instructions for this patient?
- A. Empty the bladder at least 4 times a day.
- B. Drink at least 2 quarts of water every day.
- C. Wait to urinate until the urge is very intense.
- D. Clean the urinary meatus with an antiinfective agent after voiding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drink at least 2 quarts of water every day. This answer is correct because adequate hydration helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTI recurrence. Drinking plenty of water promotes frequent urination, which helps to prevent bacteria from multiplying in the bladder.
Choice A is incorrect because the frequency of emptying the bladder does not directly impact the prevention of UTI recurrence. Choice C is incorrect as delaying urination can lead to the retention of urine, which may increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the urinary meatus with an antiinfective agent after voiding is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural flora and irritate the area, potentially leading to more infections.
In summary, maintaining adequate hydration by drinking at least 2 quarts of water daily is the most effective method to prevent UTI recurrence, while the other choices are less relevant or potentially harmful.
A-50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a thiazide diuretic that reduces calcium excretion, preventing stone formation. Furosemide (A) and spironolactone (B) do not target calcium excretion specifically. Acetazolamide (D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and not commonly used for calcium stones.
The main regulator of water reabsorption is
- A. renin
- B. angiotensin
- C. antidiuretic hormone
- D. aldosterone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: antidiuretic hormone. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys by increasing permeability of the collecting ducts to water. This allows for reabsorption of more water back into the bloodstream, reducing urine output and maintaining water balance. Renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone are involved in regulating blood pressure and electrolyte balance, not specifically water reabsorption. Therefore, ADH is the main regulator of water reabsorption in the body.