Nokea
Which of the following agents is indicated in a 25 year old female is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection?
- A. Amantadine
- B. Valacyclovir
- C. Lamivudine
- D. Zanamivir
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is a commonly prescribed antiviral medication used to treat genital herpes simplex virus infections. Firstly, it is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication, helping to reduce symptoms and prevent outbreaks. Additionally, Valacyclovir is well-tolerated and effective in managing herpes infections in young adults.
Choice A, Amantadine, is an antiviral primarily used for treating influenza A virus infections and is not effective against herpes simplex viruses. Choice C, Lamivudine, is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B infections, not herpes simplex virus infections. Choice D, Zanamivir, is also an antiviral used for treating influenza infections and is not indicated for genital herpes simplex virus infections.
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A-50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a thiazide diuretic that reduces calcium excretion, preventing stone formation. Furosemide (A) and spironolactone (B) do not target calcium excretion specifically. Acetazolamide (D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and not commonly used for calcium stones.
The nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient and notices urethral drainage. When collecting urethral discharge for microscopic examination and culture, the nurse should:
- A. Ask the patient to urinate into a sterile cup.
- B. Ask the patient to obtain a specimen of semen.
- C. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the urethra.
- D. Compress the glans between the examiner’s thumb and forefinger, and collect any discharge.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because gently compressing the glans between the thumb and forefinger can help express the urethral discharge for collection. This method minimizes contamination and ensures a proper sample for microscopic examination and culture.
A: Asking the patient to urinate into a cup would not capture the discharge.
B: Semen is not relevant for urethral discharge testing.
C: Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the urethra may cause trauma and is not recommended for collecting urethral discharge.
A 55 year old man with kidney stones has been placed on a diuretic to * decrease calcium excretion. However after a few weeks , he develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic is he taking?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Triamterene
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can lead to hyperuricemia, a risk factor for gout. Thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation and potential for gout attacks. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic that does not have a significant impact on uric acid levels. Spironolactone (B) and Triamterene (D) are potassium-sparing diuretics and do not directly affect uric acid levels. So, Hydrochlorothiazide is the most likely diuretic causing the gout attack in this case.
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the:
- A. Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
- B. Vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
- C. Urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
- D. Paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. The vestibule is the area between the labia minora where the urethral meatus and vaginal orifice are located. This is important for the nurse to observe during an examination to assess the patient's genital health.
Choice B is incorrect because the vestibular (Bartholin) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule during an examination. Choice C is incorrect because the paraurethral (Skene) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule either. Choice D is incorrect because it combines the paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands, which are not typically visible in the vestibule during examination.
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase?
- A. A return to normal weight
- B. A urine output of 3700 mL/day
- C. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels
- D. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. A urine output of 3700 mL/day indicates improved kidney function.
2. Increased urine output signifies the kidneys are able to filter and excrete waste.
3. High urine output is a positive sign of recovery in AKI patients.
4. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing kidney function.
5. Return to normal weight (choice A) may not directly indicate kidney recovery.
6. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels (choice C) can be due to other factors.
7. Decreasing BUN and creatinine levels (choice D) are important but do not directly indicate the recovery phase in AKI patients.