Genitourinary System Diseases

Genitourinary System Diseases Related

Review Genitourinary System Diseases related questions and content

Which of the following drug adverse reactions precludes a patient from being * given the same drug in the future?

  • A. GI upset from Clarithromycin
  • B. Skin Rash from Ampicillin
  • C. Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimetoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
  • D. Clostridium decile superinfection from Ooxacin
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction characterized by rash, blistering, and mucosal involvement. Once a patient experiences Steven-Johnson syndrome from a specific drug like Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, they should never be given that drug again due to the high risk of recurrence and the severity of the reaction. This is known as a contraindication, making it unsafe to administer the drug in the future.

A, B, and D are incorrect because GI upset from Clarithromycin, skin rash from Ampicillin, and Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ciprofloxacin, while unpleasant, are not typically considered contraindications for future use of the same drug. These adverse reactions can often be managed with dose adjustments, alternative medications, or supportive care without ruling out the drug entirely

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In which segment of the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?

  • A. Loop of henle
  • B. Collecting duct
  • C. Distal convoluted tubule
  • D. Proximal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proximal convoluted tubule. Glucose reabsorption primarily occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule due to the presence of specialized glucose transporters. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Glucose is filtered in the glomerulus and enters the renal tubules. 2. In the proximal convoluted tubule, glucose is reabsorbed through sodium-glucose cotransporters (SGLT) and facilitated diffusion via glucose transporters (GLUT). 3. The loop of Henle is primarily responsible for water and electrolyte reabsorption, not glucose. 4. The collecting duct mainly concentrates urine by reabsorbing water and electrolytes, not glucose. 5. The distal convoluted tubule is involved in fine-tuning electrolyte balance and regulating acid-base balance, not glucose reabsorption.

Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men. The symptoms that may indicate this problem are:

  • A. Polyuria and urgency
  • B. Dysuria and oliguria
  • C. Straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
  • D. Foul-smelling urine and dysuria
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale:
1. Prostatic hypertrophy causes an enlarged prostate gland.
2. Enlarged prostate can lead to symptoms like straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
3. These symptoms are due to obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
4. Polyuria, urgency, dysuria, oliguria, and foul-smelling urine are not typical symptoms of prostatic hypertrophy.
Summary:
Choice C is correct because it directly relates to the obstructive symptoms caused by prostatic hypertrophy. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical symptoms of this condition and are therefore incorrect.

Which of the following diuretics needs close monitoring with use of * potassium sparing diuretics such as spironolactone?

  • A. Furosemide
  • B. Captopril
  • C. Verapamil
  • D. Hydrochlorothiazid
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, which can be exacerbated when used with potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. This combination can lead to hyperkalemia, necessitating close monitoring of potassium levels.
B: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, not a diuretic.
C: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, not a diuretic.
D: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can also cause potassium depletion, but it does not specifically need close monitoring when used with potassium-sparing diuretics.

The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:

  • A. Benzathine penicillin
  • B. Sodium penicillin
  • C. Potassium penicillin
  • D. Procaine penicillin
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations.

Summary:
- Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body.
- Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation.
- Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.

Which of the following is a respiratory response to acidosis?

  • A. secretion of H+
  • B. increase tubule buffer activity
  • C. decreased respiratory rate
  • D. decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased respiratory rate. Acidosis is a condition where the blood pH is below the normal range, leading to increased levels of carbon dioxide. To compensate, the body increases respiratory rate to eliminate excess CO2 through the lungs. Therefore, in response to acidosis, the respiratory rate decreases.

A: Secretion of H+ is a metabolic response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
B: Increased tubule buffer activity is a renal response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
D: Decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio is a consequence of respiratory diseases but not a direct response to acidosis.

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