Nokea
After a client has had a needle biopsy of the prostate gland using the transrectal approach, which statement is essential to include in the client teaching plan?
- A. The doctor will call you about the test results in a day or two.
- B. Serious infections frequently occur as a complication of this test.
- C. You will need to call the doctor if you have a fever or chills.
- D. It is normal to have rectal bleeding for a few days after the test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fever and chills may indicate infection, a potential complication requiring prompt medical attention.
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Fecundation:
- A. is monospermic;
- B. consists in the fusion between the male and female gametes;
- C. consists in the grafting of the egg at the level of the Fallopian tube;
- D. requires the existence of several fecundated spermatozoa;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: consists in the fusion between the male and female gametes. Fecundation, also known as fertilization, is the process where a sperm cell fuses with an egg cell to form a zygote. This is a crucial step in sexual reproduction. The male gamete (sperm) and the female gamete (egg) come together to combine their genetic material, resulting in the formation of a new individual. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Monospermic means involving only one sperm, which is not accurate as multiple sperm may reach the egg but only one will fertilize it. C) Grafting of the egg at the Fallopian tube is not how fertilization occurs; fertilization typically takes place in the fallopian tube but does not involve grafting. D) Fecundation does not require the existence of several fecundated spermatozoa; only one sperm is needed for fertilization to occur.
The testosterone secretion is controlled by:
- A. the FSH;
- B. the LH;
- C. the corticoadrenal;
- D. the negative feedback of posterior pituitary;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: LH (luteinizing hormone) is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a key role in stimulating the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
Step 2: Testosterone secretion is directly controlled by the LH through this stimulation.
Step 3: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is involved in sperm production, not testosterone secretion.
Step 4: Corticoadrenal hormones are related to stress response, not testosterone regulation.
Step 5: Negative feedback from the posterior pituitary does not directly control testosterone secretion.
Therefore, the correct answer is B (the LH) as it directly influences testosterone production.
The placenta does which of the following?
- A. Develops from the granulosa cells
- B. Secretes luteinizing hormone
- C. Secretes estrogen
- D. Allows direct mixing of maternal and fetal blood
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The placenta secretes estrogen. The placenta is an endocrine organ that produces hormones, including estrogen, which plays a crucial role in maintaining pregnancy. Estrogen helps in regulating the menstrual cycle, promoting fetal growth, and preparing the body for childbirth. Choices A and B are incorrect because the placenta does not develop from granulosa cells and does not secrete luteinizing hormone. Choice D is incorrect because the placenta does not allow direct mixing of maternal and fetal blood; instead, it facilitates the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus through a barrier called the placental barrier.
A male nurse is teaching a client about the scrotum and the ability of sperm to be effective in fertility. The nurse teaches the client that the sperm is contained in the testes and that its temperature is regulated by which of the following?
- A. Penis and surrounding structures
- B. Bladder tone
- C. Structure of the scrotum
- D. Smooth and skeletal muscles in the scrotum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The scrotum contains smooth and skeletal muscles that help regulate the temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.
During the first few years after menopause, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are normally extremely high. A 56-year-old woman completed menopause 3 years ago. However, she is found to have low levels of FSH in her blood. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding?
- A. She has been receiving hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone since she completed menopause
- B. Her adrenal glands continue to produce estrogen
- C. Her ovaries continue to secrete estrogen
- D. She took birth control pills for 20 years before menopause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: She has been receiving hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone since she completed menopause. Hormone replacement therapy suppresses the release of FSH by providing exogenous hormones, thereby reducing the body's need to produce FSH. This explains the low levels of FSH in her blood despite being postmenopausal.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Her adrenal glands continue to produce estrogen - Adrenal glands do produce small amounts of estrogen, but not in sufficient quantities to significantly impact FSH levels.
C: Her ovaries continue to secrete estrogen - Ovaries cease estrogen production after menopause, so this would not explain the low FSH levels.
D: She took birth control pills for 20 years before menopause - Birth control pills do not directly impact FSH levels in postmenopausal women.