Nokea
Agglutination reaction is one of the following:
- A. Western blot
- B. ELISA
- C. Reaction type GRUBER
- D. Ascoli ring test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction type GRUBER. Agglutination reaction in GRUBER involves the clumping of particles due to specific antibodies binding to antigens on the surface. This reaction is commonly used in blood typing and serology tests.
A: Western blot is a technique used to detect specific proteins in a sample, not related to agglutination.
B: ELISA is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay used to detect antibodies or antigens, not based on agglutination.
D: Ascoli ring test is a method to detect the presence of DNA in a sample, not related to agglutination.
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Microscopy of dental plaque revealed unicellular organisms. Their cytoplasm had two distinct layers, barely visible core, wide pseudopodia. The patient is most likely to have:
- A. Entamoeba gingivalis
- B. Entamoeba histolytica
- C. Lamblia
- D. Trichomonas tenax
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trichomonas tenax. Trichomonas tenax is a flagellated protozoan that is commonly found in the oral cavity, specifically in dental plaque. The description provided in the question matches the characteristics of Trichomonas tenax, such as unicellular structure, distinct layers in the cytoplasm, wide pseudopodia, and barely visible core. Entamoeba gingivalis (choice A) and Entamoeba histolytica (choice B) are amoebas, not flagellated protozoa, and they do not exhibit the characteristics described in the question. Lamblia (choice C) is also an incorrect choice as it is a different type of protozoan that does not match the description provided.
A patient being treated in the burns department has suppurative complication. The pus is of bluish- green color that is indicative of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What factor is typical for this causative agent?
- A. Gram-negative stain
- B. Presense of spores
- C. Coccal form
- D. Cell pairing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).
The process by which the nucleus of protozoans undergoes multiple divisions before the cell divides is called:
- A. budding
- B. mitosis
- C. schizogony
- D. fragmentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Schizogony is the process in protozoans where multiple nuclear divisions occur before cell division. This results in the formation of multiple daughter cells.
- A: Budding is a form of asexual reproduction where a new organism grows from an outgrowth on the parent.
- B: Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells.
- D: Fragmentation is a form of asexual reproduction where an organism breaks into fragments, each developing into a new organism.
A patient with probable liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department. The patient for a long time had been on an assignment in an African country and had recurrent cases of gastrointestinal disturbance. What protozoan disease can it be?
- A. Toxoplasmosis
- B. Leishmaniasis
- C. Malaria
- D. Amebiasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance and liver abscess are indicative of an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis. The patient's travel history to an African country also increases the likelihood of contracting this disease, as it is more prevalent in tropical regions. Toxoplasmosis (A) is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces, Leishmaniasis (B) is transmitted through sandfly bites, and Malaria (C) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites. Therefore, these options are incorrect given the patient's presentation and travel history.
A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
- A. Chingamin
- B. Sulfalen
- C. Tetracycline
- D. Metronidazole
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.