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An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the:
- A. Testis. NURSINGT
- B. COM
- C. Scrotum.
- D. Prostat
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prostate. The prostate is an accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs as it produces and secretes fluid that is a component of semen. The testis (A) is the primary male reproductive organ responsible for producing sperm. The scrotum (C) is the external sac that houses the testes. Choice B does not seem to be a valid option.
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When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening question would be least threatening?
- A. Do you have any questions about growing up?
- B. What has your mother told you about growing up?
- C. When did you notice that your body was changing?
- D. I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you'll feel?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - "When did you notice that your body was changing?"
Rationale:
1. This question is open-ended and focuses on the preadolescent girl's personal experience, allowing her to share information at her comfort level.
2. It avoids assumptions and allows the girl to express herself without feeling pressured.
3. By asking about her own observations, it encourages self-reflection and empowers her to communicate about her body changes.
Summary:
A - Option A might indirectly suggest that the girl should have questions about growing up, potentially creating pressure.
B - Option B assumes the mother's role as the primary source of information, potentially overlooking the girl's own experiences.
D - Option D introduces the tutor's personal experience, which may lead the girl to compare her feelings to the tutor's, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.
The physician documented that the patient has urinary retention. How should the nurse explain this when the nursing student asks what it is?
- A. Inability to void
- B. No urine formation
- C. Large amount of urine output
- D. Increased incidence of urination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to void. Urinary retention refers to the inability to empty the bladder completely. The nurse should explain to the student that this condition causes difficulty in urination and can lead to discomfort and complications if not addressed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention does not refer to the absence of urine formation, large urine output, or increased urination frequency. It specifically relates to the inability to void urine from the bladder.
Which of the following diuretics than can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbances as adverse reactions?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Acetazolamide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist.
2. Aldosterone antagonism can lead to anti-androgenic effects, causing gynecomastia and hirsutism in males and menstrual disturbances in females.
3. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic known for electrolyte imbalances, not these specific side effects.
4. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic that primarily affects electrolytes, not causing hormonal side effects.
5. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, usually associated with metabolic acidosis, not hormonal disturbances.
Summary:
Spironolactone (D) is the correct answer due to its aldosterone antagonist properties causing hormonal side effects. The other choices do not have the same mechanism of action and are not associated with gynecomastia,
A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____
- A. 2; 2; 1
- B. 3; 2; 0
- C. 3; 2; 1
- D. 3; 3; 1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3; 2; 1. Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. As the patient has had three pregnancies, the gravida is 3. Para indicates the number of live births, so since the patient has had two live births, the para is 2. AB represents the number of abortions or miscarriages, which is 1 in this case. Therefore, the correct way to record this patient's obstetric history is gravida 3, para 2, AB 1.
Choice A (2; 2; 1) is incorrect because the patient has had three pregnancies, not two. Choice B (3; 2; 0) is incorrect as it does not account for the abortion/miscarriage that occurred. Choice D (3; 3; 1) is also incorrect because the patient has had two live births, not three.
Which statement best describes Zidovudine: *
- A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection.
- B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her
- C. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which prevents viral DNA from replicating.
- D. Peripheral neuropathy is a specic adverse reaction to Zidovudine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV.
2. Zidovudine is indeed converted by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate.
3. Zidovudine diphosphate inhibits the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing viral DNA replication in HIV-infected cells.
4. This mechanism of action is crucial in reducing viral load and slowing disease progression in HIV patients.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect. While Zidovudine is used in combination therapy for HIV, it is not typically an alternative initial treatment.
B: Incorrect. Zidovudine can be used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, but it is not its primary indication.
D: Incorrect. Peripheral neuropathy is not a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine; rather, it is more commonly associated with