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An adult is receiving Gantrisin 1 g PO qid for a urinary tract infection. Which statement that she makes indicates a need for more teaching?
- A. If I get a rash, I will apply calamine lotion.
- B. I will take my pills with a full glass of water.
- C. I will take all the pills even if I feel better.
- D. I will stay out of the sun while I am taking the pills.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A rash may indicate an adverse reaction to Gantrisin, requiring physician consultation, not self-treatment with calamine lotion.
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Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor for the client receiving the intravenous steroid Solu-Medrol?
- A. Potassium level.
- B. Sputum culture and sensitivity.
- C. Glucose level.
- D. Arterial blood gases.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Solu-Medrol (methylprednisolone) can cause hyperglycemia, requiring glucose monitoring, especially IV. Potassium, sputum, or ABGs are less directly affected.
The client in the intensive care department is receiving 2 mcg/kg/min of dopamine, an inotropic vasopressor. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every two (2) hours.
- B. Assess the client's peripheral pulses every shift.
- C. Use a urometer to assess hourly output.
- D. Ensure the IV tubing is not exposed to the light.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dopamine affects renal perfusion; hourly urine output via urometer monitors efficacy and prevents toxicity. BP, pulses, or light exposure are less critical.
The client with osteoarthritis is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Time the medication to be given with meals.
- B. Notify the HCP if abdominal striae develop.
- C. Do not administer if oral temperature is greater than 102°F.
- D. Monitor the liver function tests and renal studies.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs with meals reduce GI irritation, a common side effect. Striae, fever, or lab monitoring are less immediate concerns.
The male client with a chronic urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching?
- A. I will drink six (6) to eight (8) glasses of water a day.
- B. I am going to have to take this medication forever.
- C. I can stop taking this medication if there is no more burning.
- D. I may get diarrhea with this medication, but I can take Imodium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stopping Bactrim when symptoms resolve risks incomplete treatment and resistance; full course is needed. Hydration, duration, and diarrhea management are correct.
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving a thrombolytic agent, alteplase (Activase tissue plasminogen activator), for treatment of a myocardial infarction. What outcome indicates the client is receiving adequate therapy within the first hours of treatment?
- A. Absence of a dysrhythmia (or arrhythmia)
- B. Blood pressure reduction
- C. Cardiac enzymes are within normal limits
- D. Return of ST segment to baseline on ECG
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Return of ST segment to baseline on ECG. Improved perfusion should result from this medication, along with the reduction of ST segment elevation.