Nokea
Rita Chen, who is 25 years old and knows that she is not pregnant, is concerned because she has not had a menstrual period for three months. Her doctor described this condition as ______.
- A. dysmenorrhea
- B. amenorrhea
- C. menometrorrhagia
- D. polymenorrhoea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: amenorrhea. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual periods, which is the condition Rita Chen is experiencing. Dysmenorrhea is painful periods, not absence of periods. Menometrorrhagia is excessive and prolonged menstrual bleeding. Polymenorrhoea is frequent menstrual periods, not absence of periods. In this case, Rita's lack of periods for three months aligns with the definition of amenorrhea.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following is the primary sign of breast cancer?
- A. A bloody discharge from the nipple
- B. A dimpling of the skin over the lesion
- C. A retraction of the nipple
- D. A painless mass in the breast
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A painless mass is often the first noticeable sign of breast cancer.
During the first few years after menopause, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are normally extremely high. A 56-year-old woman completed menopause 3 years ago. However, she is found to have low levels of FSH in her blood. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding?
- A. She has been receiving hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone since she completed menopause
- B. Her adrenal glands continue to produce estrogen
- C. Her ovaries continue to secrete estrogen
- D. She took birth control pills for 20 years before menopause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: She has been receiving hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone since she completed menopause. Hormone replacement therapy suppresses the release of FSH by providing exogenous hormones, thereby reducing the body's need to produce FSH. This explains the low levels of FSH in her blood despite being postmenopausal.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Her adrenal glands continue to produce estrogen - Adrenal glands do produce small amounts of estrogen, but not in sufficient quantities to significantly impact FSH levels.
C: Her ovaries continue to secrete estrogen - Ovaries cease estrogen production after menopause, so this would not explain the low FSH levels.
D: She took birth control pills for 20 years before menopause - Birth control pills do not directly impact FSH levels in postmenopausal women.
Which of the following reasons should a nurse provide a client when asked about the purpose of a Papanicolaou test?
- A. It is used to detect early breast cancer.
- B. It is used to detect early cancer of the Cervix.
- C. It is used to detect the fertility status of the woman.
- D. It is used to detect early stages of an STD.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Pap test is specifically designed to detect early cervical cancer.
Which hormone initiates the changes in puberty?
- A. FSH
- B. ICSH
- C. testosterone
- D. GnRH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: GnRH. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is released from the hypothalamus, stimulating the pituitary gland to produce FSH and LH, which then trigger the changes of puberty. FSH and LH are not the initial hormones that start puberty, but rather the result of GnRH stimulation. Testosterone and ICSH are also involved in puberty but are not the primary hormone that initiates the process.
The point of junction of the muscle to the bone that moves is called the ___________________.
- A. Insertion
- B. Origin
- C. Sheath
- D. Fascia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insertion. The point of junction of the muscle to the bone that moves is called the insertion because this is where the muscle attaches to the bone that it acts upon. The insertion is typically located distally in relation to the origin of the muscle. The origin, choice B, refers to the point of attachment of the muscle to the stationary bone. Choices C and D, Sheath and Fascia, are incorrect as they do not specifically refer to the point of junction of the muscle to the bone that moves.