Nokea
Arterial supply of breast include
- A. Internal thoracic artery
- B. Thoracoaromial artery
- C. Superior epigastric artery
- D. Common carotid artery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Internal thoracic artery. The internal thoracic artery is a major branch of the subclavian artery and supplies the breast tissue. It gives rise to the perforating branches that supply the breast. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the thoracoaromial artery primarily supplies the upper limb, the superior epigastric artery supplies the anterior abdominal wall, and the common carotid artery supplies the head and neck, but not the breast tissue. Therefore, based on the anatomical knowledge of arterial supply, the internal thoracic artery is the correct choice for the arterial supply of the breast.
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Men who take large doses of testosterone-like androgenic steroids for long periods are sterile in the reproductive sense of the word. What is the explanation for this finding?
- A. High levels of androgens bind to testosterone receptors in the Sertoli cells, resulting in overstimulation of inhibin formation
- B. Overstimulation of sperm cell production results in the formation of defective sperm cells
- C. High levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus, resulting in the inhibition of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone release by the anterior pituitary
- D. High levels of androgen compounds produce hypertrophic dysfunction of the prostate gland
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because high levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus. GnRH is responsible for stimulating the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) by the anterior pituitary gland. LH and FSH are crucial for proper testicular function, including sperm production. When the secretion of GnRH is inhibited by high levels of androgens, it leads to a decrease in LH and FSH levels, ultimately disrupting the normal feedback loop of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. This disruption results in impaired sperm production and fertility.
Choice A is incorrect because overstimulation of inhibin formation does not directly lead to sterility. Choice B is incorrect because overstimulation of sperm cell production would not result in the formation of defective sperm cells leading to sterility. Choice D is incorrect because hypert
Rhabdomyosarcoma is the malignant tumor of the
- A. Smooth muscle
- B. Cardiac
- C. Visceral muscle
- D. Striated muscle
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor arising from striated muscle cells, hence the correct answer is D. Striated muscle cells are also known as skeletal muscle cells, which are voluntary muscles responsible for movement. Smooth muscle (Choice A) and visceral muscle (Choice C) are types of involuntary muscles found in internal organs, while cardiac muscle (Choice B) is the muscle specific to the heart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect for this question.
Why is osteoporosis much more common in elderly women than in elderly men?
- A. Men continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, whereas women cease estrogen production after menopause
- B. Women consume less dietary calcium than men
- C. Gastrointestinal absorption of calcium is more effective in men than in women
- D. The bones of women contain less calcium than those of men even before menopause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density.
Step 2: Estrogen helps regulate bone turnover and calcium balance.
Step 3: Women experience a significant drop in estrogen levels after menopause.
Step 4: Decreased estrogen production leads to increased bone resorption.
Step 5: Men, on the other hand, continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, which helps maintain bone density.
Summary: A is correct because men maintain testosterone production, while women cease estrogen production after menopause, leading to a higher risk of osteoporosis in elderly women. B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the hormonal changes that contribute to osteoporosis gender disparity.
What is the first structure to receive the oocyte?
- A. fimbriae
- B. uterine tube
- C. infundibulum
- D. uterus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: fimbriae. Fimbriae are finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tube that capture the released oocyte from the ovary during ovulation. The fimbriae create a gentle sweeping motion to guide the oocyte into the uterine tube for fertilization. The other choices are incorrect because the oocyte needs to be captured by the fimbriae before entering the uterine tube, infundibulum, or uterus. The fimbriae are the initial structure responsible for receiving the oocyte, making choice A the correct answer.
When menstruation ends in middle age:
- A. Menopause
- B. Gestation
- C. Implantation
- D. uterus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Menopause. Menopause refers to the natural cessation of menstruation in middle-aged women, typically around the age of 45-55. It occurs due to declining levels of estrogen and progesterone hormones, leading to the end of reproductive capacity. Gestation (B) refers to pregnancy, not the cessation of menstruation. Implantation (C) is the process of a fertilized egg attaching to the uterus, not related to the end of menstruation. Uterus (D) is an organ involved in menstruation but does not specifically refer to the cessation of menstruation in middle age.