Nokea
As the shift begins, you are assigned these patients. Which patient should you assess first?
- A. A 38-year-old patient with Graves' disease and a heart rate of 94/minute
- B. A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and fingerstick glucose of 137 mg/dL
- C. A 58-year-old patient with hypothyroidism and heart rate of 48/minute
- D. A 49-year-old patient with Cushing's disease and +1 dependent edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A heart rate of 48/minute in a patient with hypothyroidism could indicate bradycardia, which requires immediate assessment to ensure the patient's safety.
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What is the mass of hydrogen chloride that reacts with 5.1 g of ammonia?
- A. 3.65g
- B. 10.95g
- C. 7.05g
- D. 21.15g
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To find the mass of hydrogen chloride that reacts with 5.1g of ammonia, we need to use the stoichiometry of the balanced chemical equation. The balanced equation for the reaction between ammonia (NH3) and hydrogen chloride (HCl) is:
NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl
From the equation, we can see that 1 mole of NH3 reacts with 1 mole of HCl to form 1 mole of NH4Cl. Therefore, the molar ratio of NH3 to HCl is 1:1.
First, we need to convert the given mass of ammonia (5.1g) to moles using the molar mass of ammonia (17g/mol):
5.1g NH3 * (1 mol NH3 / 17g NH3) = 0.3 mol NH3
Since the molar ratio of NH3 to HCl is 1:1, the moles of HCl that react with
A patient has been receiving a large dose of prednisone for the relief of arthritic pain for 6 months. He suddenly stops taking his medication. What is the most serious concern?
- A. His arthritic pain will recur.
- B. He will develop an acute adrenal insufficiency.
- C. He will continue to exhibit symptoms of Cushing syndrome.
- D. He will develop a moon face and buffalo hump.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: He will develop an acute adrenal insufficiency. When a patient abruptly stops taking a large dose of prednisone after long-term use, it can suppress the body's natural production of cortisol. This sudden withdrawal can lead to adrenal insufficiency, a potentially life-threatening condition. The adrenal glands may not be able to produce enough cortisol to meet the body's needs, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, low blood pressure, and even shock. This is a serious concern that requires medical attention.
Incorrect choices:
A: His arthritic pain will recur - While this is a valid concern, it is not the most serious issue compared to acute adrenal insufficiency.
C: He will continue to exhibit symptoms of Cushing syndrome - Cushing syndrome is a result of prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, not sudden withdrawal.
D: He will develop a moon face and buffalo hump - These are physical symptoms associated with Cushing syndrome, not acute adrenal
The neurohypophysis:
- A. is the anterior pituitary gland.
- B. secretes ACTH, TSH, and the gonadotropins.
- C. secretes the releasing hormones.
- D. is the posterior pituitary gland.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. The neurohypophysis is the posterior pituitary gland.
2. It stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus.
3. These hormones include oxytocin and vasopressin.
4. These hormones regulate water balance, blood pressure, and uterine contractions.
5. Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the neurohypophysis.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Anterior pituitary gland is not the neurohypophysis.
B: Incorrect - These hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.
C: Incorrect - Releasing hormones are produced by the hypothalamus, not the neurohypophysis.
Which of the following hormones exerts negative feedback control on the secretion of ACTH?
- A. PTH
- B. Glucagon
- C. Cortisol
- D. Corticotrophin-releasing hormone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cortisol. Cortisol exerts negative feedback control on the secretion of ACTH by inhibiting the release of corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) and ACTH from the hypothalamus and pituitary gland, respectively. This feedback loop helps regulate the body's stress response and maintain hormone levels within a normal range.
A: PTH (Parathyroid Hormone) does not directly regulate the secretion of ACTH.
B: Glucagon regulates blood sugar levels and does not directly affect ACTH secretion.
D: Corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) is the hormone that stimulates the release of ACTH, so it does not exert negative feedback control on ACTH secretion.
Terbutaline specifically stimulates:
- A. Alpha1 receptors
- B. Alpha2 receptors
- C. Beta1 receptors
- D. Beta2 receptors
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Terbutaline specifically stimulates Beta2 receptors. This leads to bronchodilation by relaxing smooth muscles in the airways. Beta2 receptors are predominantly found in the lungs. Option A and B are incorrect as terbutaline does not target Alpha receptors. Option C is incorrect as terbutaline does not primarily stimulate Beta1 receptors, which are mainly found in the heart.