Nokea
Causes of puerperal pyrexia are entirely obstetrically related.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth.
Step 2: Causes can be obstetric (infection) or non-obstetric (e.g., urinary tract infection).
Step 3: Non-obstetric causes are also common postpartum.
Step 4: Therefore, puerperal pyrexia is not entirely obstetrically related.
Step 5: Hence, the correct answer is B (FALSE).
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What is the role of the placenta in pregnancy?
- A. Produces hormones
- B. Provides nutrients and oxygen to the fetus
- C. Removes waste products from the fetus
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple crucial roles in pregnancy. Firstly, it produces hormones essential for maintaining the pregnancy. Secondly, it provides nutrients and oxygen to the fetus for growth and development. Lastly, it removes waste products from the fetus to ensure a healthy environment. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the functions of the placenta, making them incorrect. Selecting option D acknowledges the comprehensive functions of the placenta during pregnancy.
R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?
- A. CT scan with IV, oral, and rectal contrast
- B. CBC with WBC differential
- C. Colonoscopy
- D. Barium enema
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct diagnostic test for the patient is a barium enema. This test is commonly used to evaluate the colon and rectum for conditions such as colonic obstruction, inflammatory bowel disease, or colorectal cancer. In this case, the patient's presentation of left lower quadrant pain with a history of constipation and variable bowel habits suggests a possible colonic obstruction, which can be visualized through a barium enema. A CT scan with contrast may be helpful in some cases but may not provide as clear a view of the colon as a barium enema. CBC with WBC differential is a general blood test and would not directly aid in diagnosing colonic issues. Colonoscopy, while a valuable tool for evaluating the colon, may not be suitable for this patient initially due to the acute nature of the presentation and the need to first rule out a potential obstruction.
Placental parasitation is associated with
- A. Candidiasis prenatally
- B. Tuberculosis prenatally
- C. Multiple gestation
- D. Malaria prenatally
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.
In myelodysplastic syndromes, the primary indications for splenectomy include
- A. Major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management
- B. Severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly
- C. Sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/µL
- D. Portal hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated for sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/µL to manage symptomatic splenomegaly and cytopenias. This is because an enlarged spleen can sequester and destroy blood cells, leading to low blood cell counts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as splenectomy is not typically indicated for major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management, severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly, or portal hypertension in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes.
Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are among the features of:
- A. Folate deficiency
- B. Very severe anaemia
- C. Mild iron deficiency
- D. Severe anaemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Very severe anaemia. Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are classic symptoms of very severe anaemia due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Anemia leads to tissue hypoxia, causing shortness of breath and fluid retention. Folate deficiency (A) typically presents with megaloblastic anemia, not generalized edema. Mild iron deficiency (C) may lead to fatigue and weakness but not the severe symptoms described. Severe anemia (D) is too broad; very severe anemia specifically refers to the severity of the condition.