Nokea
Central paresis, loss of proprioceptive sensation on one side & loss of exteroceptive sensation on the opposite form the following syndrome:
- A. Lambert-Iton
- B. Matskevich-Shtrumpel
- C. Argile-Robertson
- D. Brown-Sequard
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Brown-Sequard syndrome is the correct answer because it is characterized by ipsilateral motor paralysis and loss of proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. This syndrome results from damage to one side of the spinal cord, typically due to trauma or tumors.
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Affection of the cerebellar may produce any of the following EXCEPT:
- A. positive Romberg's test
- B. positive finger to nose test
- C. positive heel to knee test
- D. positive Rinner & Weber test
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Positive Rinner & Weber test is the correct answer because these tests are used to assess hearing and are not related to cerebellar function. The cerebellum is involved in coordination and balance, so tests like Romberg's, finger-to-nose, and heel-to-knee are used to evaluate cerebellar integrity, while Rinner and Weber tests are auditory assessments.
A person comes to the clinic reporting, I wear a scarf across my lower face when I go out but because of my ugly appearance. Assessment reveals an average appearance with no actual disfigurement. Which problem is most likely?
- A. Dissociative identity disorder
- B. Body dysmorphic disorder
- C. Pseudocyesis
- D. Malingering
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Body dysmorphic disorder. This individual's distorted belief about their appearance despite no actual disfigurement aligns with the symptoms of body dysmorphic disorder. People with this disorder obsess over perceived flaws in their appearance.
Incorrect choices:
A: Dissociative identity disorder involves multiple distinct personality states, not related to body image.
C: Pseudocyesis is a false belief of being pregnant, unrelated to body image.
D: Malingering involves feigning symptoms for external gain, not related to distorted body image perceptions.
When comparing a CVA and TIA, the nurse knows this is unique about TIAs:
- A. TIAs have permanent long-term focal deficits
- B. TIAs are intermittent with spontaneous resolution of the neurologic deficit
- C. TIAs are intermittent with permanent motor and sensory deficits
- D. TIAs have permanent long-term neurologic deficits
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are characterized by temporary neurological deficits that resolve spontaneously within 24 hours. Unlike strokes, TIAs do not cause permanent damage but are warning signs of an increased risk for future strokes. Immediate evaluation and intervention are necessary to prevent a full-blown stroke.
A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass when going from one neuron to the next is called:
- A. Neurotransmitter
- B. Synapse
- C. Axon
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Synapse is the correct answer because it is the junction between two neurons where electrical or chemical signals are transmitted. Neurotransmitters are the chemicals that facilitate this transmission, but the gap itself is called the synapse.
A patient exhibits sudden, severe headache and neck stiffness. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Perform a neurologic assessment and evaluate for signs of meningeal irritation.
- B. Measure the patient's blood pressure.
- C. Check the patient's blood glucose levels.
- D. Inspect the patient's throat.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden, severe headache and neck stiffness may indicate meningitis. A neurologic assessment and evaluation for meningeal irritation are critical. Blood pressure, glucose levels, and throat inspection are secondary.