Nokea
Decongestants such as pseudoephedrine (Sudafed):
- A. Are Schedule III drugs in all states
- B. Should not be prescribed or recommended for children under 4 years of age
- C. Are effective in treating the congestion children experience with the common cold
- D. May cause drowsiness in patients of all ages
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pseudoephedrine is unsafe for children under 4 due to serious side effects; it's not Schedule III , variably effective in kids , or typically sedating .
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A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine. The nurse should instruct the parents that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Constipation
- B. Suicidal thoughts
- C. Photophobia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a critical adverse effect of tricyclics like desipramine, requiring immediate reporting.
Zero order kinetics are seen in all except
- A. Salicylate
- B. Atenolol
- C. Barbiturates
- D. Ethanol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Barbiturates typically follow first-order kinetics; others exhibit zero-order at high doses.
Which of the following create a higher risk for digoxin toxicity? Both the cause and the reason for it must be correct.
- A. Older adults because of reduced renal function
- B. Administration of aldosterone antagonist diuretics because of decreased potassium levels
- C. Taking an antacid for gastroesophageal reflux disease because it increases the absorption of digoxin
- D. Doses between 0.25 and 0.5 mg/day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Older adults have reduced renal clearance, increasing digoxin toxicity risk.
In the presence of naloxone, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Naloxone by it self has no effect. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications?
- A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist
- B. Morphine is a full agonist, and naloxone is a partial agonist
- C. Morphine is less efficacious than is naloxone
- D. Morphine is less potent than is naloxone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone shifts morphine's dose-response curve rightward (increased EC50), typical of competitive antagonism, with no intrinsic effect.
A 60-year-old man with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is treated with pioglitazone. Which of the following phrases summarizes best this drug's main mechanism of action?
- A. Blocks intestinal carbohydrate absorption
- B. Causes glycosuria (increased renal glucose excretion)
- C. Increases hepatic gluconeogenesis
- D. Increases target tissue sensitivity to insulin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pioglitazone enhances insulin sensitivity in target tissues like muscle and fat via PPAR-gamma activation.