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When reviewing information about the Orphan Drug Program, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. The program encourages the development and marketing of products to treat rare diseases.
- B. The program grants provisional approval with a written commitment from the drug company to formally demonstrate client benefits.
- C. The program provides for incentives, such as research grants, protocol assistance, and special tax credits, to develop products to treat rare diseases.
- D. The program grants 7 years of exclusive marketing rights to the manufacturer if approved.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Orphan Drug Program encourages the development and marketing of products used to treat rare diseases. The program provides incentives to encourage manufacturers to develop orphan drugs, and if approved, the manufacturer has 7 years of exclusive marketing rights. Accelerated programs involve provisional approval and approval based on preliminary evidence.
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Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is true about these interactions?
- A. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract long enough to produce an action.
- B. Additive antimuscarinic effects may occur with antihistamines.
- C. Cholinergic blockers may decrease the sedative effects of hypnotics.
- D. Cholinergic blockers are contraindicated with antipsychotics.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Additive antimuscarinic effects with antihistamines can enhance side effects like sedation.
A physician has ordered intramuscular (IM) injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain in a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware this drug has a high abuse potential. Under what category would morphine be classified?
- A. Schedule I
- B. Schedule II
- C. Schedule III
- D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcotics with a high abuse potential are classified as Schedule II drugs because of severe dependence liability. Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III drugs have a lesser abuse potential than II and an accepted medical use. Schedule IV drugs have low abuse potential and limited dependence liability.
Which of the following class of agonists can precipitate hyperglycemia in diabetics?
- A. a 1-agonists
- B. α2-agonists
- C. β1-agonists
- D. β2-agonists
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Beta-2 agonists (e.g., salbutamol) increase glycogenolysis, raising blood glucose.
The nurse is aware that for a drug to work properly on reactive tissues, a sufficient amount of the drug is needed to cause the therapeutic effect. The term used for this amount is:
- A. Critical concentration
- B. Dynamic equilibrium
- C. Selective toxicity
- D. Active transport
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A critical concentration of a drug must be present before a reaction occurs within our cells. A dynamic equilibrium is obtained from absorption of a drug from the site of drug entry, distribution to the active site, metabolism in the liver, and excretion from the body to have a critical concentration. Selective toxicity is the ability of a drug to attach only to those systems found in foreign cells. Active transport is the process that uses energy to actively move a molecule across a cell membrane and is often involved in drug excretion in the kidney.
Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a type D reaction because they are known:
- A. Teratogens
- B. Carcinogens
- C. To cause hypersensitivity reactions
- D. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis suppressants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Azathioprine's Type D (delayed) ADRs, like cancer risk , emerge long-term, unlike teratogenicity , hypersensitivity , or HPA suppression .