Nokea
Digoxin may cause a type A adverse drug reaction due to:
- A. Idiosyncratic effects
- B. Its narrow therapeutic index
- C. Being a teratogen
- D. Being a carcinogen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin's narrow therapeutic index leads to Type A (dose-related) ADRs like toxicity, not idiosyncratic or teratogenic/carcinogenic effects .
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What is the responsibility of the nurse related to the patient's drug therapy? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Teaching the patient how to cope with therapy to ensure the best outcome
- B. Providing therapy as well as medications
- C. Changing of therapy routines
- D. Altering the drug regimen to optimize outcome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurses teach patients, evaluate therapy effectiveness, but do not alter regimens (physician's role) or provide therapy beyond medication administration.
A nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?
- A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
- C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
- D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chewing gum relieves dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of fluphenazine.
A 66-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The NP managing his primary health care needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):
- A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex)
- B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce
- C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating) require immediate treatment
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MAOIs have serotonergic interactions, food restrictions (tyramine), and hypertensive crisis risks.
All are pro drugs except
- A. Sulindac
- B. Codeine
- C. Talampicillin
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlorpromazine is active as is; others are prodrugs.
The first laboratory value indication that vitamin B12 therapy is adequately treating pernicious anemia is:
- A. Hematocrit levels start to rise
- B. Hemoglobin levels return to normal
- C. Reticulocyte count begins to rise
- D. Vitamin B12 levels return to normal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reticulocyte count rise signals early bone marrow response to B12, preceding hemoglobin or hematocrit increases.