Chronic Disease Discussion Questions

Chronic Disease Discussion Questions Related

Review Chronic Disease Discussion Questions related questions and content

During general anaesthesia for orthognathic surgery:

  • A. A head-down supine position is popular to minimize the risk of airway soiling.
  • B. Lidocaine with adrenaline 1:80000 is used for infiltration.
  • C. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are avoided even after haemostasis is achieved.
  • D. Blocks of both mandibular and maxillary nerves are possible and useful.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Anaesthesia for orthognathic surgery balances airway and bleeding risks. Head-up positioning, not head-down, reduces venous congestion and airway soiling from blood head-down risks aspiration. Lidocaine with adrenaline (typically 1:80,000-1:200,000) minimizes bleeding via vasoconstriction, a standard infiltration. NSAIDs are used post-haemostasis for analgesia, not universally avoided, unless bleeding risk persists. Mandibular and maxillary nerve blocks (e.g., V2, V3) reduce opioid needs and enhance pain control, leveraging regional anaesthesia's precision in jaw surgery. Propofol TIVA may improve recovery versus volatiles, per studies, but isn't definitive. Nerve blocks' utility optimizes perioperative pain management, critical in extensive osteotomies.

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NASH contributes to the risk of cardiovascular disease via which mechanism in the liver?

  • A. Reduced production of VLDL
  • B. Reduced production of glucose
  • C. Increased production of CRP
  • D. Increased production of HDL
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: NASH ups heart risk CRP, inflammation's flag, flares from liver, not VLDL drop, glucose dip, or HDL boost. Nurses spot this, a chronic CV spark.

The side effects of radiotherapy used in the treatment of cancer do not include which of the following:

  • A. Stomatitis
  • B. Fatigue
  • C. Alopecia
  • D. Anorexia
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Radiotherapy zaps mouth sores, tired, appetite drop, but hair's chemo's game, not rays' unless scalp-targeted. Nurses split this, a chronic beam truth.

In order to delay the progression of CKD, the single most important intervention is:

  • A. Prescription of an ACE or ARB
  • B. Reducing dietary sodium
  • C. Increasing physical activity
  • D. Achieving good blood pressure control
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: CKD's brake BP control tops ACEs, salt cuts, or workouts, slashing glomeruli strain, a chronic slowdown king. Nurses prioritize this, a pressure-driven win.

What is an independent risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

  • A. Age
  • B. Waist circumference
  • C. Smoking
  • D. All three options above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes brews from age cells tire; waist fat resists insulin; smoking inflammation tweaks glucose. All hit independently, stacking odds, a chronic trio nurses flag in every patient check, not just one picking off the list.

Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?

  • A. Yearly Pap tests
  • B. Testicular self-examination
  • C. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
  • D. Screening mammograms
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Primary prevention stops cancer before it starts by reducing risk factors in healthy folks. Teaching sunscreen use blocks UV radiation a prime cause of skin cancer like melanoma fitting this category perfectly. Pap tests and mammograms are secondary prevention, detecting cervical and breast cancer early for treatment. Testicular self-exams also fall under secondary, aiming to catch testicular cancer sooner. The shift to primary efforts, like sun protection, reflects a proactive stance, cutting UV-induced DNA damage that kicks off carcinogenesis. Nurses pushing this can slash skin cancer rates, especially in fair-skinned populations, by fostering habits that shield against environmental triggers, unlike reactive screening or post-diagnosis care.

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