Reproductive System Quizlet Anatomy

Reproductive System Quizlet Anatomy Related

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During the first few years after menopause, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are normally extremely high. A 56-year-old woman completed menopause 3 years ago. However, she is found to have low levels of FSH in her blood. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding?

  • A. She has been receiving hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone since she completed menopause
  • B. Her adrenal glands continue to produce estrogen
  • C. Her ovaries continue to secrete estrogen
  • D. She took birth control pills for 20 years before menopause
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: She has been receiving hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone since she completed menopause. Hormone replacement therapy suppresses the release of FSH by providing exogenous hormones, thereby reducing the body's need to produce FSH. This explains the low levels of FSH in her blood despite being postmenopausal.

Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Her adrenal glands continue to produce estrogen - Adrenal glands do produce small amounts of estrogen, but not in sufficient quantities to significantly impact FSH levels.
C: Her ovaries continue to secrete estrogen - Ovaries cease estrogen production after menopause, so this would not explain the low FSH levels.
D: She took birth control pills for 20 years before menopause - Birth control pills do not directly impact FSH levels in postmenopausal women.

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A patient asks when she can stop having Pap (Papanicolaou) tests. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?

  • A. Until you are no longer sexually active.
  • B. Through age 65.
  • C. Until you begin menopause.
  • D. Through the end of menopause.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Through age 65. This is because current guidelines recommend that women continue to have Pap tests every 3-5 years until age 65, assuming previous tests have been normal. This age cutoff is based on the decreasing risk of cervical cancer with age and the low likelihood of developing new HPV infections after this age. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the most up-to-date screening recommendations and may lead to unnecessary testing or missed opportunities for appropriate screening.

The following statements about the prostate are true:

  • A. it is an exocrine glandular organ;
  • B. it is an unpaired organ;
  • C. it secretes a fluid that is part of the semen;
  • D. it is vascularized by a branch of the internal iliac artery;
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A):
1. The prostate gland is an exocrine gland because it secretes its products through ducts onto an epithelial surface.
2. It is a paired organ, with two lobes located above the urethra and below the bladder.
3. The prostate secretes a fluid that contributes to the seminal fluid, not semen itself.
4. The prostate is vascularized by branches of the internal iliac artery, not the entire gland.
Therefore, the correct statement is that the prostate is an exocrine glandular organ (Choice A).

A male nurse is teaching a client about the scrotum and the ability of sperm to be effective in fertility. The nurse teaches the client that the sperm is contained in the testes and that its temperature is regulated by which of the following?

  • A. Penis and surrounding structures
  • B. Bladder tone
  • C. Structure of the scrotum
  • D. Smooth and skeletal muscles in the scrotum
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The scrotum contains smooth and skeletal muscles that help regulate the temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.

Mrs. Flower has had an uneventful recovery from a hysterectomy necessitated by a class III cervical lesion. Two days before going home, she stopped eating, complained of difficulty swallowing, and would not talk. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

  • A. Avoid mention of diet and ask her husband to bring in favored foods
  • B. Recommend psychiatric consultation before discharge
  • C. Monitor her intake and output as a nursing measure
  • D. Arrange for the dietician to talk with her
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Psychiatric consultation is appropriate to address potential psychological issues affecting recovery.

Where does spermatogenesis occur?

  • A. Interstitial cells.
  • B. Seminal vesicles.
  • C. Seminiferous tubules.
  • D. Vas deferens.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Seminiferous tubules. Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production, which occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. These tubules contain specialized cells called Sertoli cells and spermatogonia that undergo multiple stages of cell division and maturation to form spermatozoa. Interstitial cells (A) produce testosterone, seminal vesicles (B) secrete seminal fluid, and vas deferens (D) is the duct that carries sperm from the testes to the urethra but is not the site of spermatogenesis.

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