Disorders of the Genitourinary System

Disorders of the Genitourinary System Related

Review Disorders of the Genitourinary System related questions and content

During the interview, a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse's most appropriate response to this would be:

  • A. Oh, don't worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.
  • B. Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?
  • C. I'd like some information about the discharge. What color is it?
  • D. Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it focuses on gathering more information about the vaginal discharge, which is essential in assessing the patient's condition. By asking about the color of the discharge, the nurse can gather valuable information to help determine if it might be related to a sexually transmitted infection or another issue. This approach shows a patient-centered and thorough assessment.

Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's concerns without obtaining further information. Choice B jumps to conclusions about unprotected sexual intercourse without first assessing the situation. Choice D is unrelated to the patient's primary concern about vaginal discharge and urinary incontinence.

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Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?: *

  • A. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus
  • B. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus
  • C. Varicell
  • D. zoster virus
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it is a DNA virus that requires viral DNA polymerase for replication. The drug is selectively activated by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells, leading to its antiviral activity. Herpes simplex Type 2, Varicella zoster, and other viruses do not possess the same susceptibility to acyclovir due to differences in their replication mechanisms.

What indicates to the nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria?

  • A. Urine testing reveals a low specific gravity.
  • B. Causative factor is malignant hypertension.
  • C. Urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration.
  • D. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because prerenal oliguria is typically characterized by a low specific gravity in urine testing. This indicates that the kidneys are conserving water due to decreased blood flow or volume. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to prerenal oliguria. Choice D is also incorrect as reversal of oliguria with fluid replacement is not specific to prerenal oliguria and can occur in other types of renal failure.

Generally, the changes normally associated with menopause occur because the cells in the reproductive tract are:

  • A. Aging.
  • B. Becoming fibrous.
  • C. Estrogen dependent.
  • D. Able to respond to estrogen.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Estrogen dependent. During menopause, the changes in the reproductive tract are primarily due to the decline in estrogen levels. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining the health of the reproductive tissues. As estrogen levels decrease, it leads to various symptoms and changes associated with menopause. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the hormonal changes that occur during menopause. Choice D is incorrect because during menopause, the cells in the reproductive tract become less responsive to estrogen due to the decline in estrogen levels.

"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?

  • A. Vancomycin
  • B. Clindamycin
  • C. Cefoperazone
  • D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.

The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of

  • A. The nurse reads that the physician assessed the patients deep tendon reflexes. What condition of the urinary/renal system does this assessment address?
  • B. Renal calculi
  • C. Bladder dysfunction
  • D. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal calculi. Deep tendon reflex assessment is not directly related to the urinary/renal system. Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort in the urinary tract. The assessment may help identify if the patient is experiencing symptoms related to renal calculi, such as flank pain or hematuria. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not specifically addressed by assessing deep tendon reflexes, unlike renal calculi.

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