Essential education for patients with regards to insulin therapy includes the following except:
- A. Hypoglycaemia management
- B. Sickday management
- C. Prescribing insulin
- D. Safe driving
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin education patients learn hypo fixes, sick day tweaks, driving rules, needle skills; prescribing's the doc's job, not their load. Nurses drill this chronic self-care kit, skipping the script-writing bit for pros.
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When assigning staff to patients who are receiving chemotherapy, what is the major consideration about chemotherapeutic drugs?
- A. During preparation, drugs may be absorbed through the skin or inhaled
- B. Many chemotherapeutics are vesicants
- C. Chemotherapeutics are frequently given through central venous access devices
- D. Oral and venous routes are the most common
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chemotherapy's potency demands safety focus preparation risks skin absorption or inhalation, exposing staff to toxins, necessitating specialized training and protective gear. Vesicants, causing tissue damage if extravasated, are a concern, but preparation hazards affect all drugs, broader in scope. Central venous access is common but a procedural detail, not the primary staffing issue. Route prevalence is logistical, not safety-centric. Prioritizing exposure risk ensures staff handling mixing, drawing minimizes occupational harm, a legal and ethical imperative, shaping assignments to trained personnel, critical in chemotherapy's high-stakes delivery.
A nurse is planning a diet for a client who is iron deficient. Which of the following foods high in iron should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Leafy green vegetables
- C. Oranges
- D. Cashews
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iron deficiency craves heme leafy greens like spinach pack non-heme iron, boosting hemoglobin, a diet fix over dairy's low yield. Oranges aid absorption, not iron itself; cashews offer some, less potently. Nurses plan greens, pairing with vitamin C, a practical lift for this anemic client's blood.
A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas (ABG) values of a client admitted with end-stage kidney disease; pH 7.26; PaCO2 37 mm Hg; PaO2 94 mm Hg and HCO3 15 mEq/L. What do these values indicate?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: End-stage kidney disease hampers acid excretion pH 7.26 (below 7.35) and HCO3 15 mEq/L (below 22) confirm metabolic acidosis, as kidneys fail to buffer, dropping bicarbonate. PaCO2 37 mm Hg (normal) rules out respiratory issues lungs aren't compensating yet. PaO2 94 mm Hg shows oxygenation's fine. Alkalosis options contradict low pH; respiratory acidosis needs high CO2. Nurses recognize this acid-base shift, anticipating bicarbonate or dialysis, a key intervention in renal failure's metabolic chaos.
Which statement is not true?
- A. negative thick and thin smears does not adequately rule out malaria
- B. falciparum malaria will always show up on thick and thin smears where the others may not
- C. chloroquine is the drug of choice to treat falciparum
- D. vivax and ovale are more likely to reactivate at a later stage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chloroquine flops for falciparum resistance rules, not smears' miss, relapse, or anemia truths. Nurses dodge this chronic treatment trap.
Assessment of NAFLD at primary care clinic includes for followings except:
- A. Fibroscan
- B. Fasting glucose
- C. Liver biopsy
- D. Liver function test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NAFLD's primary peek Fibroscan, glucose, lipids, and LFTs flags fat and fallout, all doable outpatient. Liver biopsy, gold but invasive, stays secondary, not routine. Clinicians lean on non-pokey tools, screening chronic liver load smart, a practical dodge of the knife.