Nokea
For children receiving steroid therapy, which of the following regimens is most appropriate for perioperative management?
- A. Prednisone 1 mg/kg given 24 and 12 hours before surgery
- B. Dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg IV given 24 and 12 hours before surgery
- C. Hydrocortisone 5 mg/kg IV given 24 and 12 hours before surgery
- D. Methylprednisolone 10 mg/kg IV given 24 and 12 hours before surgery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hydrocortisone is commonly used for perioperative steroid coverage due to its mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid effects.
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A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
- A. Risk for transmission of infection
- B. Pain
- C. Health-seeking behaviours
- D. Ineffective sexuality pattern
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given that the 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with genital herpes and is concerned about preventing complications of the disease, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis would be "Risk for transmission of infection." Genital herpes is a highly contagious sexually transmitted infection, and individuals with the infection can transmit it to their partners through sexual contact. Therefore, it is crucial to educate the girl on ways to prevent the transmission of the infection to others. By addressing this nursing diagnosis, the healthcare team can provide guidance on safer sexual practices, including the use of condoms, abstinence during outbreaks, and communication with partners to prevent the spread of the infection. This nursing diagnosis focuses on promoting the girl's health and preventing further complications related to the transmission of genital herpes.
Building a tower by a 22-month-old child requires
- A. visual-motor coordination
- B. uses visual and motor skills in combination
- C. gross and fine motor coordination
- D. symbolic thought
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tower building primarily involves visual-motor coordination.
Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children and adolescents; it has multiple subtypes and requires different modalities of treatment including surgery and chemotherapy. Of the following, the subtype of osteosarcoma which is treated by surgery alone is
- A. fibroblastic
- B. chondroblastic
- C. parosteal
- D. periosteal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Periosteal osteosarcoma is often treated with surgery alone if margins are clear.
Which of the following symptoms most likely indicates that an infusion is infiltrated?
- A. Redness at the site
- B. Pain at the site
- C. Puffiness at the site
- D. Exudate at the site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Puffiness at the site is the symptom that most likely indicates that an infusion is infiltrated. Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissues instead of entering the vein. This can lead to swelling and puffiness at the site as the fluid accumulates in the tissue. Redness, pain, and exudate at the site are also common signs of infiltration, but puffiness specifically points towards the fluid accumulating outside the vein. If infiltration is suspected, it is important to stop the infusion, remove the IV catheter, and apply appropriate treatment based on the severity of the infiltration.
An infant with gastroschisis is MORE likely than one with an omphalocele to have which of the following conditions?
- A. Congenital heart disease
- B. History of prematurity
- C. Imperforate anus
- D. N/A
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Infants with gastroschisis are more likely to have a history of prematurity compared to those with omphalocele, though neither condition is strongly associated with congenital heart disease or imperforate anus.