For enteropathogenic E. coli is true:
- A. They attach to enterocytes and destroy microvillus
- B. They are invasive and produce enterotoxin (no enterotoxin)
- C. Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system.
2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction.
3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines.
Summary:
- B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins.
- C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis.
- D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.
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Nigrosin is a stain used in:
- A. simple staining
- B. gram staining
- C. negative staining
- D. acid-fast staining
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nigrosin is used in negative staining, where the background is stained instead of the cells themselves. This technique helps highlight the morphology and structure of cells that may be damaged by traditional staining methods. Nigrosin is negatively charged and repels the negatively charged bacterial cells, resulting in a clear halo around the cells. This process is particularly useful for observing capsules and determining cell size and shape. The other options are incorrect because simple staining uses a single dye to color the entire cell, gram staining involves a series of dyes to differentiate between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, and acid-fast staining is used to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium.
Which organism is responsible for cholera?
- A. Salmonella typhi
- B. Vibrio cholerae
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Shigella dysenteriae
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, Escherichia coli can cause various infections but not cholera, and Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is B.
A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10-18 mcm large. They have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of body. What kind of the lowest organisms is it?
- A. Lamblia
- B. Dysentery ameba
- C. Trichomonas
- D. Intestinal ameba
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamblia. The description matches the characteristics of Giardia lamblia - a protozoan parasite that causes giardiasis. The piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, and two symmetrically located nuclei are specific to Giardia lamblia. It is important to differentiate it from the other choices. Dysentery ameba (choice B) typically has a single nucleus and lacks the specific characteristics described. Trichomonas (choice C) is a flagellated protozoan with different morphology and does not match the given description. Intestinal ameba (choice D) such as Entamoeba histolytica usually has a single nucleus and different body shape compared to the described organism.
A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?
- A. Legionella
- B. Mycoplasma
- C. Streptococcus
- D. Staphylococcus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
- A. Facultative anaerobes
- B. Obligate aerobes
- C. Obligate anaerobes
- D. Microaerophiles
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.