Nokea
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure that includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen
- D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide's potassium loss can enhance digoxin toxicity, requiring potassium monitoring.
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Which lab test(s) would be used to assess liver and/or renal function before administering medications? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. CBC
- B. LDH
- C. ALT
- D. Crs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Liver function tests include LDH (lactic dehydrogenase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase). Renal function tests include Crs (serum creatinine) and BUN (blood urea nitrogen). Although a CBC (complete blood count) and an aPTT are useful in assessing the patient before administration of medication, they are not renal or hepatic function tests.
The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is:
- A. The second dose of MMR 'boosts' the immunity built from the first dose
- B. Two vaccines 1 month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines
- C. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too close together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine
- D. Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Two MMR doses ensure 99% immunity, as 95% respond to one dose; boosting is secondary to this goal.
A patient is being treated with isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide in phase I of treatment for tuberculosis. The organism develops resistance to isoniazid. Which drug will the nurse anticipate the provider will order to replace the isoniazid?
- A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
- B. Ethambutol (Myambutol)
- C. Kanamycin
- D. Streptomycin sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethambutol replaces INH in phase I if resistance occurs; ciprofloxacin or kanamycin are less common first-line options. If there is bacterial resistance to isoniazid, the first phase may be changed to ethambutol, rifampin, and pyrazinamide.
A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina and develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Captopril
- C. Ranolazine
- D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metoprolol , a beta-blocker, treats reflex tachycardia by slowing heart rate.
James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
- A. Type B
- B. Type C
- C. Type E
- D. Type F
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic prednisone use causing HPA suppression is a Type C (chronic) ADR , linked to prolonged exposure, not idiosyncratic , withdrawal , or failure .