Nokea
Generally, the changes normally associated with menopause occur because the cells in the reproductive tract are:
- A. Aging.
- B. Becoming fibrous.
- C. Estrogen dependent.
- D. Able to respond to estrogen.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Estrogen dependent. During menopause, the changes in the reproductive tract are primarily due to the decline in estrogen levels. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining the health of the reproductive tissues. As estrogen levels decrease, it leads to various symptoms and changes associated with menopause. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the hormonal changes that occur during menopause. Choice D is incorrect because during menopause, the cells in the reproductive tract become less responsive to estrogen due to the decline in estrogen levels.
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The nurse is performing a focused genitourinary and the flank and lower abdomen. The patient is being renal assessment of a patient. Where should the nurse assessed for renal calculi. The nurse recognizes that the assess for pain at the costovertebral angle? stone is most likely in what anatomic location?
- A. At the umbilicus and the right lower quadrant of the
- B. Meatus
- C. Bladder
- D. Ureter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ureter. The nurse should assess for pain at the costovertebral angle to check for renal calculi because the ureters connect the kidneys to the bladder and flank pain at this angle can indicate ureteral obstruction from a renal stone. Assessing at the umbilicus (choice A) or meatus (choice B) would not provide information specific to renal calculi. Assessing at the bladder (choice C) would be more relevant for bladder issues, not renal calculi.
Which of the following drugs valuable in the treatment of edema and * metabolic alkalosis?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Spironalctone
- C. Dobutamine
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme, leading to increased excretion of bicarbonate ions, thus causing metabolic alkalosis correction and reducing edema. Digoxin (A) is used for heart failure, Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Dobutamine (C) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for heart failure, none of which directly address metabolic alkalosis.
Your patient does not seem to be responding to conservative treatment for acute renal failure, and dialysis is being considered. You understand that the main indication for dialysis is
- A. generalized edema
- B. elevated blood pressure
- C. elevated blood calcium
- D. a high and rising level of potassium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a high and rising level of potassium. Dialysis is indicated in acute renal failure when the patient has severe electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Potassium levels must be closely monitored, and if they are high and continue to rise despite conservative treatment, dialysis is necessary to quickly lower the potassium levels. Generalized edema (A) is a symptom of renal failure but is not the main indication for dialysis. Elevated blood pressure (B) and elevated blood calcium (C) are not direct indications for dialysis in the context of acute renal failure.
Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?: *
- A. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus
- B. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus
- C. Varicell
- D. zoster virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it is a DNA virus that requires viral DNA polymerase for replication. The drug is selectively activated by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells, leading to its antiviral activity. Herpes simplex Type 2, Varicella zoster, and other viruses do not possess the same susceptibility to acyclovir due to differences in their replication mechanisms.
As a charge nurse, which patient's nursing care would you assign to the LPN/LVN?
- A. A 48-year-old patient with cystitis taking oral antibiotics
- B. A 64-year-old patient with kidney stones and a new order for lithotripsy
- C. A 72-year-old patient with urinary incontinence needing bladder training
- D. A 52-year-old patient with pyelonephritis and severe acute flank pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with kidney stones requiring lithotripsy would benefit from the LPN/LVN's care. This task involves monitoring the patient's vital signs, providing pre and post-procedure care, and ensuring patient comfort. The LPN/LVN is trained to perform these duties safely.
Choice A is incorrect as the patient with cystitis on oral antibiotics can be managed by a nursing assistant under supervision. Choice C is incorrect because bladder training for urinary incontinence typically requires the skills of an RN due to the complexity of the intervention. Choice D is incorrect as the patient with pyelonephritis and severe flank pain requires immediate assessment and intervention by an RN due to the severity of the condition.