Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF

Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Related

Review Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF related questions and content

He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

  • A. Vasopressors are contraindicated in traumatic head injury
  • B. Hypotension doubles the risk of mortality from traumatic head injury
  • C. His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury
  • D. Stabilizing the head injury is more important that identifying the cause of hypotension
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury.

Rationale:
1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion.
2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow.
3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients.

Summary:
A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated.
B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context.
D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

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The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to

  • A. Continue the current regimen
  • B. D/C the spironolactone and begin a loop diuretic
  • C. Add a loop diuretic to the spironolactone
  • D. Proceed to large-volume paracentesis
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continue the current regimen. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used to treat ascites. The weight loss of 0.75 kg/day indicates that the current regimen is effective. Continuing the regimen is appropriate to avoid electrolyte imbalances. Discontinuing spironolactone (Choice B) can lead to rebound edema. Adding a loop diuretic (Choice C) may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbances. Large-volume paracentesis (Choice D) is reserved for cases of refractory ascites.

Non-infective mastitis is associated with

  • A. Cellulitis
  • B. Flat nipples
  • C. Bifid nipples
  • D. Adenitis
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Non-infective mastitis is associated with adenitis because it refers to inflammation of breast tissue without an infection. Adenitis specifically involves inflammation of the lymph nodes, which can be a common cause of non-infective mastitis. Cellulitis (A) is an infection of the skin and tissues beneath the skin, not specific to mastitis. Flat (B) and bifid (C) nipples are anatomical variations that do not directly relate to the inflammation of breast tissue.

Ms. Kweke’s specific management until delivery (obstructed labour):

  • A. Immediate caesarean section
  • B. Observation with pain relief
  • C. Manual repositioning of fetus
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immediate caesarean section. In obstructed labor, prompt delivery is crucial to prevent harm to both the mother and the baby. A caesarean section is the most effective and timely intervention to safely deliver the baby and avoid complications such as fetal distress, maternal infection, and uterine rupture. Observation with pain relief (B) may delay necessary intervention, and manual repositioning of the fetus (C) is not sufficient in cases of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because not all options are appropriate in this specific scenario.

Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs

  • A. Within the first 24 hours of birth
  • B. Within the first week of birth
  • C. Within the neonatal stage
  • D. Within the infancy stage
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within the first week of birth. Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding typically occurs within the first week of birth due to low levels of vitamin K in newborns. During this time, infants are at a higher risk of bleeding complications if not supplemented with vitamin K. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding usually occurs after the first 24 hours. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specify a specific time frame within the neonatal stage. Choice D is incorrect as classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is typically seen within the first week, not necessarily during the entire infancy stage.

Prolonged second stage of labor in nulliparous women is labor for more than

  • A. 1 hour
  • B. 2 hours
  • C. 4 hours
  • D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 4 hours. This is based on the definition of prolonged second stage in nulliparous women, which is labor lasting more than 4 hours. This duration is considered abnormal and may lead to increased risk of maternal and fetal complications. Choice A (1 hour) is too short and does not meet the criteria for prolonged second stage. Choice B (2 hours) is also insufficient based on the established timeframe. Choice D (8 hours) exceeds the duration for prolonged second stage, indicating a more advanced stage of labor. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate timeframe for prolonged second stage in nulliparous women is 4 hours.

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