Nokea
HELLP syndrome is characterized by (H) hemolysis, (EL) elevated liver enzymes, and (LP)
- A. lateral pain
- B. low (blood) pressure
- C. low platelet count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Low platelet count is a key feature of HELLP syndrome, reflecting microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.
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The bone cell type that breaks down the bone matrix is:
- A. Osteocytes
- B. Osteoclasts
- C. Osteoblasts
- D. Osteoprogenitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoclasts. Osteoclasts are bone cells responsible for breaking down the bone matrix through a process called bone resorption. They secrete enzymes and acids that dissolve the mineralized matrix, allowing for bone remodeling and repair. Osteocytes (A) are mature bone cells that help maintain bone tissue. Osteoblasts (C) are responsible for bone formation by synthesizing new bone matrix. Osteoprogenitor cells (D) are undifferentiated cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts. Therefore, the correct answer is B as osteoclasts specifically break down the bone matrix.
The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old patient. You expect the initial treatment to include
- A. initiating hormone therapy.
- B. scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
- C. examining the patient after her next menstrual perio
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because examining the patient after her next menstrual period allows for monitoring the cyst's size and nature. This approach is conservative and avoids unnecessary interventions like hormone therapy or surgery. Monitoring the cyst over time can help determine if it is benign or requires further treatment. Initiating hormone therapy (choice A) is not necessary at this point and may not address the cyst. Scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst (choice B) is invasive and premature without first observing the cyst's behavior. Waiting for the next menstrual period allows for a more informed decision-making process based on the cyst's response to hormonal changes.
In the postpartal period, the uterine fundus should no longer be palpable after
- A. 14 days
- B. 10 days
- C. 7 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The fundus typically descends into the pelvis and is no longer palpable by 10 days postpartum.
Severe post-dural puncture (spinal) headache is best treated with
- A. epidural blood patch
- B. opioid analgesia
- C. caffeinated beverages
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An epidural blood patch effectively seals the dural puncture and relieves headache symptoms.
The cell free fetal DNA test assesses for
- A. chromosomal disorders
- B. neural tube defects
- C. fetal alcohol syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cell-free fetal DNA testing screens for chromosomal abnormalities like trisomy 21, 18, and .