Nokea
Hemolytic jaundice is:
- A. Caused by more fragile RBCs.
- B. Caused by liver damage.
- C. Characterized by low bilirubin in urine.
- D. All of the above are incorrect.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic jaundice is caused by more fragile RBCs. When red blood cells are destroyed at an increased rate, it leads to the release of more bilirubin, causing jaundice. Choice B is incorrect because liver damage leads to hepatocellular jaundice, not hemolytic. Choice C is incorrect as hemolytic jaundice is characterized by high bilirubin levels in the blood, not low levels in urine. Choice D is incorrect as option A is the correct explanation for hemolytic jaundice.
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Once chylomicrons leave the simple columnar epithelium of the small intestine, they diffuse into
- A. capillaries.
- B. lacteals.
- C. arterioles.
- D. venules.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: lacteals. Chylomicrons are too large to enter capillaries directly, so they are absorbed into lacteals, specialized lymphatic vessels in the small intestine. Lacteals transport chylomicrons to the lymphatic system, eventually reaching the bloodstream via the thoracic duct. Arterioles and venules are part of the blood circulation system and are not directly involved in chylomicron absorption.
The pharyngeal phase of swallowing:
- A. Is partially voluntary
- B. Includes opening of the upper oesophageal sphincter
- C. Includes the peristaltic activity of the upper third of the oesophagus
- D. Is associated with the opening of the glottis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the pharyngeal phase of swallowing involves the peristaltic activity of the upper third of the esophagus, pushing the food bolus towards the stomach. This phase is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing reflex. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the pharyngeal phase is entirely involuntary, the upper esophageal sphincter opens during the esophageal phase, and the opening of the glottis is associated with protection of the airway during swallowing, not the pharyngeal phase.
The function of the migrating motor
- A. is to:
- B. Empty non-digestable material from stomach and small intestine during fasting
- C. Initiate mass movements in the large intestine
- D. Increase intestinal peristalsis in response to overfeeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The migrating motor complex (MMC) functions to clear non-digestible material from the stomach and small intestine during fasting periods. Step 1: During fasting, MMC promotes gastrointestinal motility to prevent bacterial overgrowth. Step 2: MMC consists of 3 phases - quiescent, irregular contractions, and intense contractions - aiding in sweeping undigested materials. Step 3: This process helps maintain gut health and prevents issues like bacterial overgrowth or malabsorption. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the specific function of the migrating motor complex during fasting.
A nurse on the day shift is preparing to change a client's total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution, but the new TPN solution has not arrived from the pharmacy. The client receives additional IV fat emulsion during the night shift. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Hang dextrose 10% in water (D10W) until the TPN solution is delivered.
- B. Saline lock the IV catheter after discontinuing the TPN solution.
- C. Hang the IV fat emulsion solution.
- D. Call the provider for new TPN orders.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hang dextrose 10% in water (D10W) until the TPN solution is delivered. This is the correct action because the client is dependent on TPN for nutrition and cannot go without it. D10W provides a source of glucose to prevent hypoglycemia until the TPN solution arrives. It is important to maintain the client's glucose levels to prevent complications.
Choice B is incorrect because saline locking the IV catheter would not address the client's nutritional needs.
Choice C is incorrect because hanging the IV fat emulsion solution alone would not provide the necessary nutrients that the client needs from the TPN solution.
Choice D is incorrect because calling the provider for new TPN orders would delay the client from receiving essential nutrition. Hanging D10W is the most appropriate action to ensure the client's safety and well-being while waiting for the TPN solution to arrive.
You're caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?
- A. Flushed, dry skin
- B. Headache and bradycardia.
- C. Dizziness and sweating.
- D. Dyspnea and chest pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a common complication post-Billroth II procedure due to rapid emptying of gastric contents into the small intestine. Choice C (dizziness and sweating) align with early dumping syndrome symptoms like vasomotor symptoms and hypoglycemia. Flushed, dry skin (A) is not typical, headache and bradycardia (B) are more indicative of vagal reaction, and dyspnea and chest pain (D) are not usually associated with dumping syndrome.