Hypoglycemic effects of repaglinide and nateglinide is determined with:
- A. Closure of ATP sensitive K+ channels
- B. Increase numbers of insulin receptors
- C. Stimulation of PPAR-Y receptors
- D. Degradation of incretin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Repaglinide and nateglinide close ATP-sensitive K+ channels on beta cells, triggering insulin release.
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The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for the client receiving an antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client:
- A. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for headache
- B. Drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amounts each evening
- C. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
- D. That it is not necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Because antineoplastic medications lower the resistance of the body, clients must be informed not to receive immunizations without a HCP's approval. Clients also need to avoid contact with individuals who have recently received a live virus vaccine. Clients need to avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing products to minimize the risk of bleeding, and they need to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of toxicity and side effects.
Niaspan is less likely to cause which side effect that is common to niacin?
- A. Gastrointestinal irritation
- B. Cutaneous flushing
- C. Dehydration
- D. Headaches
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Niaspan's extended-release form reduces flushing compared to immediate-release niacin.
A physician has ordered intramuscular injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug, therefore, morphine is categorized as a:
- A. Schedule I drug
- B. Schedule II drug
- C. Schedule III drug
- D. Schedule IV drug
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcotics such as morphine are considered schedule II drugs because of the high abuse potential with severe dependence liability. Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III drugs have a lesser abuse potential than schedule II drugs and an accepted medical use. Schedule IV drugs have low abuse potential and limited dependence liability.
The nurse is caring for a patient who takes several drugs. What patient would the nurse monitor most closely because of an increased risk for adverse effects of medications?
- A. The school-aged child
- B. The obese middle-aged man
- C. The adolescent
- D. The newborn infant
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Newborns have immature organs, increasing risk for adverse effects from multiple drugs.
A 6 year old child was admitted to the emergency unit with suspicion of an accidental overdose of chlordiazepoxide. Which of the following antagonists may be administered as part of the initial treatment?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Naloxone
- C. Fomepizole
- D. Nalorphine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepine (e.g., chlordiazepoxide) overdose.