Nokea
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is characterized by underdevelopment of
- A. Pulmonary veins, ventricles and aortic valve
- B. Left ventricle, atrium and pulmonary vessels
- C. Aorta arch, venacava and right atrium
- D. Left ventricle, aortic valve and arch
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left ventricle, aortic valve, and aortic arch. The left ventricle is typically small and unable to adequately pump blood to the body. The aortic valve is often malformed, leading to difficulties in blood flow from the heart to the body. Additionally, the aortic arch may be narrow or underdeveloped, further impacting blood circulation.
Choice A is incorrect as it includes the pulmonary veins, which are not typically affected in hypoplastic left heart syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the left atrium and pulmonary vessels, which are not the primary structures affected in this condition. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the aorta arch, venacava, and right atrium, which are not primarily associated with hypoplastic left heart syndrome.
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Congenital retraction of the prepuce, so that the glans is permanently exposed, is known as
- A. Phimosis
- B. Paraphimosis
- C. Hypospadias
- D. Hermaphroditism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Congenital retraction of the prepuce, leading to permanent glans exposure, describes paraphimosis. This condition occurs when the foreskin is pulled back and cannot return to its normal position, causing pain and swelling. Phimosis (A) is the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans. Hypospadias (C) is a urethral opening on the underside of the penis. Hermaphroditism (D) is a rare condition of having both male and female reproductive organs. Paraphimosis (B) is the specific term for the given scenario.
A condition of trial of scar is
- A. Estimated fetal weight of less than 3600g
- B. Availability of a level one hospital nearby
- C. Not more than two previous caesarean section scars
- D. An adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A trial of scar is indicated when a woman has had no more than two previous caesarean sections. This is because the risk of uterine rupture increases with each subsequent caesarean section due to scar tissue weakening. Limiting the number of previous scars reduces this risk. Therefore, option C is correct.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Estimated fetal weight is not a determining factor for a trial of scar.
B: Availability of a level one hospital nearby is important for emergency situations but not a criteria for trial of scar.
D: Adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm is important for vaginal delivery but not a specific requirement for a trial of scar.
The comprehensive serologic assessment of a patient with Cushings syndrome is likely to produce which constellation of findings?
- A. Low potassium, high glucose, high white blood cell count
- B. High sodium, polycythemia, low BUN
- C. Low sodium, low potassium, high BUN
- D. High sodium, high chloride, high RBCs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to sodium retention, potassium loss, and increased protein breakdown. Low sodium and potassium levels along with high BUN are commonly seen in patients with Cushing's syndrome.
A: Low potassium and high glucose are possible findings, but high white blood cell count is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.
B: High sodium and polycythemia are not typical findings in Cushing's syndrome, and low BUN is not consistent with the protein breakdown seen in this condition.
D: High sodium and high chloride levels can be seen, but high RBCs are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCFAHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that
- A. Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
- B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
- C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
- D. Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. The ACCF/AHA recommends cardiac consultation before an operation for patients on antiplatelet therapy to assess the risk of bleeding versus thrombotic events.
2. Cardiac consultation helps determine the necessity of continuing, modifying, or stopping antiplatelet therapy.
3. This individualized approach ensures optimal perioperative management based on the patient's cardiovascular risk profile.
4. Choice A is incorrect as stopping antiplatelet therapy for 10 days can increase the risk of thrombotic events.
5. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the decision-making process without considering the patient's specific risks.
6. Choice D is incorrect because initiating antiplatelet therapy in all high-risk cardiac procedures may not be necessary for every patient.
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy treatment for cancer is given to facilitate surgical resection. When the outcomes of cancer therapies are evaluated, the terms complete response and partial response often are used. Partial response means that
- A. 50% of the patients treated with a given regimen demonstrate remission
- B. 50% of the patients treated survive to the 5-year point
- C. The tumor mass has reduced by > 50%
- D. In 50% of cases, the tumor converts from unresectable to resectable
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the context of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, a partial response means converting an unresectable tumor to a resectable one. This is crucial as it allows for successful surgical removal of the tumor. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately define partial response in the context of cancer therapy. A, stating 50% of patients demonstrating remission, is not specific to the change in resectability. B, mentioning 50% survival at 5 years, is more related to overall survival rather than the response to treatment. C, stating a reduction in tumor mass by >50%, does not necessarily imply a change in resectability status. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate definition of partial response in the given scenario.