Nokea
If necessary, your physician can increase your dose up to 40 mg per day.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Maybe
- D. Not mentioned
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The statement indicates the possibility of increasing the dose up to 40 mg, implying that it is within the physician's discretion.
Step 2: The use of the word "can" suggests the potential for the physician to make such an adjustment.
Step 3: The phrase "if necessary" implies that the dose adjustment will be based on the individual's specific needs.
Step 4: Therefore, it is true that the physician has the authority to increase the dose up to 40 mg per day based on the patient's condition and requirements.
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Intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the treatment of the following condition:
- A. Cardiac edema
- B. Cerebral edema
- C. Cirrhotic edema
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is commonly used to treat pulmonary edema by reducing fluid overload in the lungs. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This helps to alleviate the congestion and fluid accumulation in the lungs seen in pulmonary edema. Mannitol, on the other hand, is typically used for cerebral edema due to its osmotic diuretic properties. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as furosemide is not the preferred diuretic for cardiac, cerebral, or cirrhotic edema.
Which is incorrect of renal transplant patients?
- A. Identical twin donor and recipient, require no immunosuppression..
- B. Graft rejection may present with graft tenderness, decreased urine output and increased
- D. Infection is the most common cause of morbidity and mortality in the early stages, with 80% developing infection in the first year.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Identical twin donor and recipient still require immunosuppression due to minor histocompatibility antigens. Failure to suppress the immune system can lead to rejection. Graft rejection may present with symptoms such as graft tenderness, decreased urine output, and increased creatinine levels. Infections are indeed a common cause of morbidity and mortality in renal transplant patients, with a high incidence within the first year post-transplant. Therefore, choice A is incorrect as even identical twin donors and recipients require immunosuppression to prevent rejection.
The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD). What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)?
- A. Less protein loss
- B. Rapid fluid removal
- C. Less cardiovascular stress
- D. Decreased hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Less protein loss. Peritoneal dialysis (PD) occurs continuously, allowing for a slower and gentler removal of waste products, leading to less protein loss compared to the intermittent nature of hemodialysis (HD). This is because PD uses the peritoneal membrane as a filter, which is more gentle on proteins.
Rapid fluid removal (B) is actually an advantage of HD, as it can quickly remove excess fluids. Less cardiovascular stress (C) is not a specific advantage of PD over HD, as both types of dialysis can impact cardiovascular health. Decreased hyperlipidemia (D) is not a direct advantage of PD over HD.
During an examination of an aging man, the nurse recognizes that normal changes to expect would be:
- A. Change in scrotal color.
- B. Decrease in the size of the penis.
- C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum.
- D. Increase in the number of rugae over the scrotal sa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. As men age, there is a decrease in testosterone levels leading to shrinkage of the testes and penis.
2. Decrease in penile size is a normal age-related change due to reduced blood flow.
3. Option A is incorrect as scrotal color usually remains unchanged.
4. Option C is incorrect as testes and scrotum tend to shrink rather than enlarge.
5. Option D is incorrect as rugae decrease with age due to decreased elasticity.
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which * of the following drugs?
- A. Lamivudine and stavudine
- B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
- C. Abacavir and zidovudine
- D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that consists of these two drugs. Lamivudine and zidovudine work together to inhibit the replication of the HIV virus. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, while zidovudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Both drugs target different stages of the HIV life cycle, making them effective when used in combination.
Choice A (Lamivudine and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy. Choice C (Abacavir and zidovudine) is incorrect because abacavir is not included in Combivir. Choice D (Abacavir and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.