Nokea
An outbreak of influenza A has just been reported in his community and a 45 year old man is exhibiting initial symptoms of influenza A. Which agent would be the most useful to treat him?
- A. Cidofovir
- B. Famciclovir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amantadine. Amantadine is an antiviral medication that is specifically effective against influenza A virus. It works by blocking the viral ion channel, preventing the virus from entering the host cell. This inhibits viral replication and helps reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
Choice A, Cidofovir, is used to treat certain DNA viruses but is not effective against influenza A. Choice B, Famciclovir, is used to treat herpes viruses, not influenza A. Choice D, Ribavirin, is an antiviral medication used for respiratory syncytial virus and hepatitis C, but not as effective against influenza A. Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Amantadine due to its specific activity against influenza A virus.
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A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of “dull pain and pulling†in the scrotal area. On examination, the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This description is consistent with:
- A. Epididymitis.
- B. Spermatocele.
- C. Testicular torsion.
- D. Varicocele.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Varicocele. Varicocele is a dilatation of the pampiniform plexus of veins within the scrotum. In this case, the soft, irregular mass that collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright is characteristic of a varicocele due to the pooling of blood causing the mass to vary in size with position changes.
A: Epididymitis typically presents with redness, warmth, and tenderness in the epididymis, not a soft, irregular mass.
B: Spermatocele is a cystic mass that is typically painless and does not change in size with position changes.
C: Testicular torsion presents with severe, sudden onset of testicular pain, swelling, and discoloration, not a soft, irregular mass that changes with position.
In summary, the description of a soft, irregular mass that changes with position is consistent with a varicocele,
The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: *
- A. Doxycline
- B. Oxytetracycline
- C. Minocycline
- D. Demeclocycline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Minocycline. Minocycline has a higher potential for vestibular toxicity compared to other tetracyclines due to its greater lipid solubility, leading to increased penetration of the blood-brain barrier and inner ear. This can result in dizziness, vertigo, and imbalance.
Choice A, Doxycycline, is less likely to cause vestibular toxicity since it has lower lipid solubility and reduced penetration into the inner ear. Choice B, Oxytetracycline, and Choice D, Demeclocycline, also have lower potential for vestibular toxicity compared to Minocycline due to similar reasons. Overall, Minocycline stands out as the correct answer due to its unique pharmacokinetic properties that predispose it to vestibular toxicity.
Intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the treatment of the following condition:
- A. Cardiac edema
- B. Cerebral edema
- C. Cirrhotic edema
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is commonly used to treat pulmonary edema by reducing fluid overload in the lungs. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This helps to alleviate the congestion and fluid accumulation in the lungs seen in pulmonary edema. Mannitol, on the other hand, is typically used for cerebral edema due to its osmotic diuretic properties. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as furosemide is not the preferred diuretic for cardiac, cerebral, or cirrhotic edema.
Regarding UTI's will not increase your risk of developing one?
- A. Pregnancy
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Being female
- D. Catheterization
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being female. Being female does not increase the risk of developing a UTI. UTIs are more common in females due to shorter urethras. Pregnancy (A) can increase UTI risk due to hormonal changes. Diabetes mellitus (B) can affect the immune system, leading to higher UTI susceptibility. Catheterization (D) introduces bacteria into the urinary tract, significantly increasing the risk of UTIs. Overall, being female alone does not directly increase the risk of UTIs compared to the other factors mentioned.
Mrs. Miller has a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. To prevent renal damage her plan of care should include
- A. restricting fluid intake until symptoms are under control
- B. reducing protein intake
- C. understanding the necessity of continuing drug therapy indefinitely
- D. preventing viral infections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. Acute pyelonephritis requires antibiotic therapy to eliminate the infection and prevent renal damage.
2. Continuing drug therapy indefinitely ensures complete eradication of the infection.
3. Stopping drug therapy prematurely can lead to recurrence and potential renal complications.
4. Understanding the necessity of drug therapy is crucial for Mrs. Miller's long-term renal health.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can worsen the infection and hinder recovery.
B: Incorrect. Protein intake is not directly related to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis.
D: Incorrect. Preventing viral infections is not directly relevant to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis.