Nokea
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which * of the following drugs?
- A. Lamivudine and stavudine
- B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
- C. Abacavir and zidovudine
- D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that consists of these two drugs. Lamivudine and zidovudine work together to inhibit the replication of the HIV virus. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, while zidovudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Both drugs target different stages of the HIV life cycle, making them effective when used in combination.
Choice A (Lamivudine and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy. Choice C (Abacavir and zidovudine) is incorrect because abacavir is not included in Combivir. Choice D (Abacavir and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
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During an examination of an aging man, the nurse recognizes that normal changes to expect would be:
- A. Change in scrotal color.
- B. Decrease in the size of the penis.
- C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum.
- D. Increase in the number of rugae over the scrotal sa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. As men age, there is a decrease in testosterone levels leading to shrinkage of the testes and penis.
2. Decrease in penile size is a normal age-related change due to reduced blood flow.
3. Option A is incorrect as scrotal color usually remains unchanged.
4. Option C is incorrect as testes and scrotum tend to shrink rather than enlarge.
5. Option D is incorrect as rugae decrease with age due to decreased elasticity.
Why should the nurse assess the client's pressure dressing frequently after an angiography procedure?
- A. To note frank bleeding.
- B. To note hematoma formation.
- C. To check for signs of arterial occlusion.
- D. To assess peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To note hematoma formation. After an angiography procedure, there is a risk of bleeding under the pressure dressing, leading to hematoma formation. By assessing the dressing frequently, the nurse can detect any signs of hematoma early, preventing complications such as compromised circulation or infection. Checking for frank bleeding (Choice A) is important but less likely to occur under a pressure dressing. Arterial occlusion (Choice C) is a serious but less immediate concern post-angiography. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice D) is also important but not specific to monitoring for hematoma formation.
Which one of the following bactericidal antimycobacterial drugs binds to S12 * ribosomal subunit inhibiting protein synthesis when injectable drug is needed and also effective against drug-resistant tuberculosis drug, can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?
- A. Streptomycin
- B. Ethambutol
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Rifampicin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptomycin. Streptomycin binds to the S12 ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis in Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is effective against drug-resistant tuberculosis and is used as an injectable drug. Streptomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity as side effects.
Choice B: Ethambutol primarily inhibits cell wall synthesis and can cause optic neuritis.
Choice C: Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis and can cause hepatotoxicity.
Choice D: Rifampicin inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and can cause hepatotoxicity and drug interactions.
Superinfections are more common with:
- A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics
- B. Short courses of antibiotics
- C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines
- D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria can disrupt the balance of normal flora in the body, leading to superinfections. Gram positive and gram negative bacteria have different susceptibility patterns, so using a combination of antibiotics increases the likelihood of killing off a wider range of bacteria, including the beneficial ones. This disruption paves the way for opportunistic pathogens to overgrow and cause superinfections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because narrow spectrum antibiotics target specific bacteria, short courses of antibiotics reduce the risk of resistance and overgrowth, and antibiotics completely absorbed from the small intestines have minimal impact on gut flora compared to systemic antibiotics.
Which is incorrect of renal transplant patients?
- A. Identical twin donor and recipient, require no immunosuppression..
- B. Graft rejection may present with graft tenderness, decreased urine output and increased
- D. Infection is the most common cause of morbidity and mortality in the early stages, with 80% developing infection in the first year.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Identical twin donor and recipient still require immunosuppression due to minor histocompatibility antigens. Failure to suppress the immune system can lead to rejection. Graft rejection may present with symptoms such as graft tenderness, decreased urine output, and increased creatinine levels. Infections are indeed a common cause of morbidity and mortality in renal transplant patients, with a high incidence within the first year post-transplant. Therefore, choice A is incorrect as even identical twin donors and recipients require immunosuppression to prevent rejection.