Nokea
The dartos muscle is responsible for:
- A. Temperature regulation.
- B. herni
- D. Wrinkled appearance of scrotum.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wrinkled appearance of scrotum. The dartos muscle is a smooth muscle in the scrotum that contracts and causes the wrinkled appearance of the scrotum. This contraction helps regulate the temperature of the testes by moving them closer to or further away from the body for optimal sperm production. Choice A is incorrect because temperature regulation is primarily controlled by the cremaster muscle. Choice B is incorrect as hernia is not a function of the dartos muscle. Choice C is an incomplete choice and does not relate to the function of the dartos muscle.
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A 22-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of severe menstrual cramps. The nurse suspects dysmenorrhea. Which of the following is the most likely cause of dysmenorrhea?
- A. Uterine contractions.
- B. Endometriosis.
- C. Ovarian cysts.
- D. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian cysts. Ovarian cysts can cause dysmenorrhea by disrupting the normal menstrual cycle and causing pain. Endometriosis (B) is another common cause of dysmenorrhea, but it involves the abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Uterine contractions (A) are a normal part of menstruation and may cause cramping but are not the primary cause of dysmenorrhea. PCOS (D) is a hormonal disorder that can cause irregular periods and pain, but it is not the most likely cause of dysmenorrhea in this case.
One of your patients is awaiting laboratory results for kidney function. The patient has recently recovered from a streptococcal throat infection. The patient has most likely developed symptoms of:
- A. Pyelonephritis.
- B. Nephrolithiasis.
- C. Chronic renal failure.
- D. Glomerulonephritis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glomerulonephritis. Streptococcal infection can lead to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), an immune-mediated inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This results in hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Pyelonephritis (choice A) is a bacterial infection of the kidneys, not related to streptococcal infection. Nephrolithiasis (choice B) is the formation of kidney stones, which is not directly linked to streptococcal infection. Chronic renal failure (choice C) is a long-term decline in kidney function, not typically caused by streptococcal infection.
Mary Jane develops edema after the birth of her first child and will be treated by peritoneal dialysis. The nurse will have the patient void before the catheter is introduced into the peritoneal space to
- A. determine the effectiveness of the treatment
- B. prevent accidental puncture of the bladder
- C. get an accurate output record
- D. prevent incontinence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prevent accidental puncture of the bladder. Voiding before catheter insertion ensures the bladder is empty, reducing the risk of bladder puncture during peritoneal dialysis. Choice A is incorrect as voiding does not determine treatment effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as output recording is not the primary reason for voiding. Choice D is incorrect as voiding does not directly prevent incontinence during peritoneal dialysis.
Which is incorrect of renal transplant patients?
- A. Identical twin donor and recipient, require no immunosuppression..
- B. Graft rejection may present with graft tenderness, decreased urine output and increased
- D. Infection is the most common cause of morbidity and mortality in the early stages, with 80% developing infection in the first year.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Identical twin donor and recipient still require immunosuppression due to minor histocompatibility antigens. Failure to suppress the immune system can lead to rejection. Graft rejection may present with symptoms such as graft tenderness, decreased urine output, and increased creatinine levels. Infections are indeed a common cause of morbidity and mortality in renal transplant patients, with a high incidence within the first year post-transplant. Therefore, choice A is incorrect as even identical twin donors and recipients require immunosuppression to prevent rejection.
Which of the following interferes with mycolic acid synthesis an essential component of mycobacterial cell walls for which resistance will develop rapidly if the drug is used alone?
- A. Isoniazid
- B. Rifampicin
- C. Pyrazinamide
- D. Ethanbutol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid, a crucial component of mycobacterial cell walls. If used alone, resistance can develop rapidly due to its specific mechanism of action. Rifampicin (B) acts on RNA polymerase, not mycolic acid synthesis. Pyrazinamide (C) targets mycobacteria in acidic environments, not mycolic acid. Ethambutol (D) inhibits arabinosyltransferase, not mycolic acid synthesis.